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o-na [289]
3 years ago
15

What does it mean to be a storehouse of value?

Mathematics
2 answers:
cricket20 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

D. Any item that maintains its worth over time.

Oliga [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

D. Any item that maintains its worth over time.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Domain: -∞ ≥ x ≥ ∞
Range: y ≥ 0
This graph shows a function
8 0
3 years ago
What is 2/3x=10 one step equations
stellarik [79]
Multiply both sides by three to get 2x=30
Then divide both sides by 2 to get x=15
7 0
3 years ago
A certain virus infects one in every 400 people. A test used to detect the virus in a person is positive 90% of the time if the
Ahat [919]

Answer:Given:

P(A)=1/400

P(B|A)=9/10

P(B|~A)=1/10

By the law of complements,

P(~A)=1-P(A)=399/400

By the law of total probability,

P(B)=P(B|A)*P(A)+P(B|A)*P(~A)

=(9/10)*(1/400)+(1/10)*(399/400)

=51/500

Note: get used to working in fraction when doing probability.

(a) Find P(A|B):

By Baye's Theorem,

P(A|B)

=P(B|A)*P(A)/P(B)

=(9/10)*(1/400)/(51/500)

=3/136

(b) Find P(~A|~B)

We know that

P(~A)=1-P(A)=399/400

P(~B)=1-P(B)=133/136

P(A∩B)

=P(B|A)*P(A) [def. of cond. prob.]

=9/10*(1/400)

=9/4000

P(A∪B)

=P(A)+P(B)-P(A∩B)

=1/400+51/500-9/4000

=409/4000

P(~A|~B)

=P(~A∩~B)/P(~B)

=P(~A∪B)/P(~B)

=(1-P(A∪B)/(1-P(B)) [ law of complements ]

=(3591/4000) ÷ (449/500)

=3591/3592

The results can be easily verified using a contingency table for a random sample of 4000 persons (assuming outcomes correspond exactly to probability):

===....B...~B...TOT

..A . 9 . . 1 . . 10

.~A .399 .3591 . 3990

Tot .408 .3592 . 4000

So P(A|B)=9/408=3/136

P(~A|~B)=3591/3592

As before.

Step-by-step explanation: its were the answer is

5 0
3 years ago
Given the figure below, find the values of x and z
Ratling [72]
(13x-85)^o=97^o\\\\13x-85=97\ \ \ |+85\\\\13x=182\ \ \ |:13\\\\x=14

z^o+97^o=180^o\ \ \ |-97^o\\\\z^o=83^o

Answer: x = 14; z = 83
4 0
4 years ago
In two or more complete sentences explain how you would set up and solve the equation: Dan and Rick belong to different gyms. Da
olga55 [171]
The equation would be 40+15p=70+5p. You would subtract 5p from each side (15-5) and (5-5) and you'll have 40+10p=70. You would then subtract 40 from each side (70-40) and (40-40) to have 10p=30. You would divide by both of the sides by 10, you would end up with p=3. P is price training. The reason you divide and subtract on both sides is because you want the months to be on one side and the price training on the other side.
7 0
3 years ago
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