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Naddika [18.5K]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following is NOT an end goal of BOTH quality improvement programs and continuous process improvement? Select one: a

. Achieving a specific set goal b. Reducing errors and defects c. Improving efficiency d. Improving profits
Business
1 answer:
Mazyrski [523]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>Achieving specific set of goals does not come under Quality improvement programs and continuous process improvement.</h2>

Explanation:

Option B: Reducing errors and defects: Quality improvement means it includes avoiding / reducing errors too. The same can be considered as an improvement in the process too.

Option C: Improving efficiency: Continuous improvement should reflect the efficiency in improving performance and standards and thus enhancing the quality.

Option D: Improving profit: The ultimate aim to is have profit through quality product deliverable and continuous improvement in producing those. So Option D is valid

The given programs are not for achieving a specific goals. So Option A is invalid

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One year ago, you purchased a stock at a price of $43.20 per share. The stock pays quarterly dividends of $.18 per share. Today,
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

Capital gain = $2.16

Explanation:

The return on equity is the sum of the dividends earned and capital gains made during the holding period of the investment.  

Dividend is the proportion of the profit made by a company which is paid to shareholders.  

Capital gains is another type of the return made on an equity investment as a result of increase in the value of the shares. It is difference between the cost of the share and the value at the time of disposal.  

Therefore, capital gain  as follows:  

Capital gain = $45.36-43.20

Capital gain = $2.16

8 0
3 years ago
Castillo Company has a defined benefit pension plan. At the end of the reporting year, the following data were available: beginn
Luda [366]

Answer:

$23,000

Explanation:

Before recording the journal entry, first we have to determine the pension expense amount which is shown below:

Pension expense = service cost + interest cost - expected return on plan assets

= $18,000 + $5,000 - $10,000

= $13,000

Now the journal entry would be

Pension expense A/c Dr $13,000

Plan asset A/c Dr $10,000

        To PBO A/c $23,000

(Being the annual pension cost is recorded)

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

6 0
3 years ago
When a buyer’s willingness to pay for a good is equal to the price of the good, the?
viktelen [127]
Measures the value that a buyer places on a good
7 0
3 years ago
The standard quantity allowed for the units produced was 4,500 pounds, the standard price was $2.50 per pound, and the materials
katrin2010 [14]
The standard quantity that is produces is multiplied to the standard price. The product is subtracted to the quantity variance and will be divided to the standard price. The product you have acquired will be the units that are produced.

4,500 pounds x $2.50 = 11,250
11,250 - $375  = 10,875
10,875 / $2.50 = 4,350

Answer: There are 4,350 units produced.
7 0
3 years ago
Marpor Industries has no debt and expects to generate free cash flows of $16 million each year. Marpor believes that if it perma
tatyana61 [14]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a.  Marpor's value without leverage is

But before that first we have to calculate the required rate of return which is

The Required rate of return = Risk Free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium

= 5% + 1.1 × (15% - 5%)

= 16%

Now without leverage is

= Free cash flows generates ÷ required rate of return

= $16,000,000 ÷ 16%

= $100,000,000

b. And, with the new leverage is

= (Free cash flows with debt ÷ required rate of return) + (Tax rate × increase of debt)

= ($15,000,000 ÷ 0.16) + (0.35 × $40,000,000)

= $93,750,000 + $14,000,000

= $107,750,000

5 0
3 years ago
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