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Gekata [30.6K]
3 years ago
15

What is the answer?.....

Mathematics
2 answers:
PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

g(-2) = -2(-2)^2 - 2(-2) = -2(4) + 4 = -8 + 4 = -4

f(-4) = 4(-4) + 1 = -16 + 1 = -15

exis [7]3 years ago
7 0
I only use brainly for help with my dumb homework but I hope you’re doing well
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Suppose that each coupon obtained is, independently of what has been previously obtained, equally likely to be any of m differen
Triss [41]

ANSWER:

E[X] ≈ m ln m

STEP-BY-STEP EXPLANATION:

Hint: Let X be the number needed. It is useful to represent X by

       m      

X =  ∑  Xi

      i=1

where each Xi  is a geometric random variable

Solution: Assume that there is a sufficiently large number of coupons such that removing a finite number of them does not change the probability that a coupon of a given type is draw. Let X be the number of coupons picked

       m      

X =  ∑  Xi

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where Xi is the number of coupons picked between drawing the (i − 1)th coupon type and drawing i th coupon type. It should be clear that X1 = 1. Also, for each i:

Xi ∼ geometric \frac{m - i + 1}{m} P r{Xi = n} =(\frac{i-1}{m}) ^{n-1} \frac{m - i + 1}{m}

Such a random variable has expectation:

E [Xi ] =\frac{1}{\frac{m- i + 1}{m}  } = \frac{m}{m-i + 1}

Next we use the fact that the expectation of a sum is the sum of the expectation, thus:

                m           m             m                    m

E[X] = E    ∑  Xi  =   ∑ E   Xi  = ∑  \frac{m}{m-i + 1}  = m ∑ \frac{1}{i} = mHm

               i=1           i=1             i=1                   i=1

In the case of large m this takes on the limit:

E[X] ≈ m ln m

4 0
3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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