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sukhopar [10]
3 years ago
6

Consider a monopolist currently selling output Q to two different markets: Market A and Market B. This monopolist is able to pri

ce discriminate and charge different prices in these markets. Let QA and PA be the quantity and price in market A, and QB and PB be the quantity and price in market B. The monopolist is optimally choosing its prices and quantities, in order to maximize profit. The monopolist knows the price elasticity of demand in these markets, and knows that market A is more inelastic than market B. Consider each of the following three statements. What do we know for sure?1) Regarding marginal revenues, we must have MRA > MRB 2) Regarding prices, we must have PA > PB 3) Regarding quantities, we must have QA> QB
Business
1 answer:
sweet [91]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1. This is true because demand in market A is more inelastic which means demand curve and marginal revenue curve are steeper in this market. at any quantity marginal revenue will be higher in market A than in market B

2. This is true because market where demand is inelastic have a higher price. This is because revenue is increased when higher price is charged in market with inelastic demand.

3. This is false/uncertain because when price is higher in market a the quantity will be lower relativity. This is due to the downward sloping demand function in which price is increased quantity will decline.

Explanation:

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A firm incurs $35,000,000 of actual OH costs. It has a PDOH rate of $450 per machine hour and 100,000 machine hours were actuall
ella [17]

Answer:

c.  Debit: Overhead Control $10,000,000  

Credit: Cost of Goods Sold $10,000,000

Explanation:

The journal entry to close the overhead account is presented below:

Overhead Control A/c Dr $10,000,000

       To Cost of Goods Sold A/c  $10,000,000

(Being the overhead account is closed)

The computation is shown below:

= Applied overhead - actual overhead

where,

Applied overhead equal to

= $450 × 100,000 machine hours

= $45,000,000

And, the actual overhead is $35,000,000

So, the amount would be

= $45,000,000 - $35,000,000

= $10,000,000

Since the applied overhead is greater than the actual overhead, so we debited the overhead control account and credited the cost of goods sold account

5 0
3 years ago
Sally is planning to sell her company and she prefers to obtain immediate liquidity, and the value of consideration to be fixed.
ella [17]

Answer: A cash sale

                                           

Explanation: In simple words, liquidity refers to the ability of an organisation to bear its short term expenses. For that a company must have cash or some assets that can be readily converted into cash in case of need.

Hence Sally should sell her company in cash sale as it will result in inflow of cash which will create liquidity and also the consideration will be certain with short timely payments.

Other option such as IPO or  stock for stock might result in increase in value but certainly won't give her liquidity.  

6 0
3 years ago
American expansionism after the 1890s:
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

a. was largely driven by the desire for expanded overseas trade

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At December 31, 20X3, before recognizing any depreciation expense for 20X3, X Company has a machine with an original cost of $36
shutvik [7]

Answer:

If X Company uses the units of production method for calculating depreciation, depreciation expense in 20X3 will be (rounded):

$45000

Explanation:

Cost                360000  

Accum. Depre 90000  

Usefull life         7  

   

Produce 1 20000  

Produce 2 10000  

Produce 3 50000  

                80000  

   

Deprec=cost/unit    

   

Depre=360000/80000    

Depre= 4,5  

   

Produce 2012  20000 4,5 90000

Produce 2013  10000 4,5 45000

Produce rest   50000 4,5 225000

             80000 4,5 360000

7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following equations is true? Select one: a. Contribution margin = Sales revenue × Variable cost ratio b. Contributi
m_a_m_a [10]

Answer: c. Contribution margin ratio = 1 − Variable cost ratio

Explanation:

The Contribution margin ratio is defined as the difference between the sales price of a good and it's variable costs. It is expressed as a percentage.

The formula is,

Contribution Margin Ratio = Sales - Variable Costs / Sales

Breaking the formula down further we have,

Contribution Margin Ratio = Sales/ Sales - Variable Costs / Sales

Contribution Margin Ratio = 1 - Variable Costs / Sales

Variable Cost/Sales is the Variable Cost Ratio.

So Option C is correct.

5 0
3 years ago
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