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nata0808 [166]
3 years ago
12

3(-n+4)+5n=2n a. n=3 b. no solution c. infinitely many solutions

Mathematics
2 answers:
ratelena [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. No Solution

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you'll want to distribute 3 through the parentheses (in other words, multiple the parentheses).

-3n + 12 + 5n = 2n

Next, you collect the like terms, in this case, the like terms are -3n and 5n.

2n + 12 = 2n

Finally, you will cancel equal terms on both sides of the equation (which is the 2n).

12 = 0

This makes the statement false for any value of n. Meaning that your answer is B, no solution.

777dan777 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

no solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

3(-n+4)+5n=2n

Distribute

-3n +12 +5n = 2n

2n+12 = 2n

Subtract 2n from each side

12 = 0

This is never true so there are no solutions

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Answer:

35.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

31/87(100)

3100/87

35.6%

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
A survey of couples in a city found the following probabilities:
liraira [26]

Answer

(a) 0.94

(b)0.06

Step-by-step explanation:

P(husband is employed) = P(H) = 0.85

P(wife is employed) = P(W) = 0.59

P(both are employed) = P(H∩W) = 0.50

(a) At least one of them is employed

= P(H∪W)

= P(H) + P(W) - P(H∩W)

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=0.94

(b) Neither is employed,

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= 1-0.94

=0.06

8 0
3 years ago
Let f be a continuous function defined on the interval [0,1] such that f(0) = f(1). Show that there exists a number 0 &lt;= a &l
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Explanation:

In order to prove that affirmation, we define the function g over the interval [0, 1/2] with the formula g(x) = f(x+1/2)-f(x) .

If we evaluate g at the  endpoints we have

g(0) = f(1/2)-f(0) = f(1/2) - f(1) (because f(0) = f(1))  

g(1/2) = f(1) - f(1/2) = -g(0)

Since g(1/2) = -g(0), we have one chance out of three

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We will prove that g has a zero on [0,1/2]. If g(0) = 0, then it is trivial. If g(0) ≠ 0, then we are in one of the first two cases, and therefore g(0) * g(1/2) < 0. Since f is continuous, so is g. Bolzano's Theorem assures that there exists c in (0,1/2) such that g(c) = 0.  This proves that g has at least one zero on [0,1/2].

Let c be a 0 of g, then we have

0 = g(c) = f(c+1/2)-f(c)

Hence, f(c+1/2) = f(c) as we wanted.

5 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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