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marin [14]
3 years ago
13

What's the simplest form 1.4/7

Mathematics
2 answers:
saul85 [17]3 years ago
6 0
1/5 is the simplest form. I hope you found this answer helpful.
ollegr [7]3 years ago
5 0
1.4/7 = 14/70 =D tell me if you got it
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I need answer for this math problem​
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

3h²

Step-by-step explanation:

factor or breakdown 3h² : 3 * h * h

factor or breakdown 3h³ : 3 * h * h * h

Now, we can see that 3 * h * h is common so 3h² is the gcf.

6 0
2 years ago
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What is the surface area of the sphere below?
dexar [7]

Answer:

A =4πr2

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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A group of students worked in the school garden. The graph shows the number of hours the students worked
Viefleur [7K]
A
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3 years ago
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I need this pls helpp
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

m∠7 = 63 degrees

m∠8 = 117 degrees

m∠9 = 63 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

When two lines intersect at a point, then they formed 2 pairs of vertically opposite angles and 4 pairs of linear angles

  • The vertically opposite angles are equal in measures
  • The linear angles have a sum of 180°

In the given figure

∵ There are two lines intersected at a point

∴ The angle of measure 117° and ∠8 are vertically opposite angles

∴ ∠7 and ∠9 are vertically opposite angles

∴ The angle of measure 117° and ∠7 are linear angles

∵ The vertically opposite angles are equal in measures

∴ The angle of measure 117° and ∠8 are equal in measures

∴ m∠8 = 117°

∵ The sum of the measures of the linear angles is 180°

∴ m∠7 + 117° = 180°

→ Subtract 118 from both sides

∵ m∠7 + 117 - 117 = 180 - 117

∴ m∠7 = 63°

∵ m∠7 = m∠9 ⇒ proved up

∴ m∠9 = 63°

3 0
3 years ago
find the probability exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%. round
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

Hence, the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment round to the nearest tenth of a percent is:

31.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting exactly k successes in n trials is given by the probability mass function:



{\displaystyle P(k;n,p)=P(X=k)={\binom {n}{k}}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}}

Where p denotes the probability of success.

We are given that  the probability of success if 50%.

i.e. p=\dfrac{1}{2}

also form the question we have:

k=3 and n=6.

Hence the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials is:


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(1-\dfrac{1}{2})^{6-3}}


{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}}

{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{6}

\binom {6}{3}=20

Hence,

{\displaystyle P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)=20\times (\dfrac{1}{2})^6=\dfrac{5}{16}

In percentage the probability will be:

\dfrac{5}{16}\times 100=31.25\%=31.2\%



8 0
3 years ago
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