Answer:
b) higher
Explanation:
As we know that the bondholders would be have more priority as compared with the shareholders either they have high risk as compared with the bond holders
So as per the given situation, in the case when the stockholder has the residual claim on all the assets after the payment of debt. This leads to high risk as compared with the bondholders
Therefore the correct option is B.
Answer:
- Yes it is.
- Ethical issue ⇒ Insider Trading.
Explanation:
Trading on the stock exchange is supposed to be as fair as possible so that every investor has a fair chance of making returns. If a person - like this supervisor - is using information that is material but not publicly disclosed yet to trade on markets, the fairness of the market is compromised because the person will have an edge over other investors which will enable them make unfair profits.
Information on quarterly returns is usually material so we can expect it to be material here as well which means that the supervisor is engaged in insider trading.
Insider trading is not only unethical but also highly illegal. Reporting your supervisor can get them sent to jail.
Answer:
option (C) - 6.11%
Explanation:
Data provided :
Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065
Semiannual coupon rate = 
= 0.0325
Face value = $1,000
Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072
Semiannual Present market yield, r = 
= 0.036
Now,
With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C
= 0.0325 × $1,000
= $32.5
Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year
or
n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods
Therefore,
The present value = ![C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7Br%7D%5D%2BFV%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D)
= ![\$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%2432.5%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D%29%7D%7B0.036%7D%5D%2B%5C%241%2C000%5Ctimes%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D)
or
= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147
= $567.42 + $371.47
= $938.89
Hence,
The percent change in bond price = 
= 
= - 6.11%
therefore,
the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%
Answer:
$417 A.
It is an adverse variance.
Explanation:
Fixed factory overhead volume variance is the difference between budgeted output at 100% normal capacity and actual production volume multiplied by standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Formula
Fixed factory overhead volume variance = (budgeted standard hours for 100% normal capacity - Actual standard output hours) × standard fixed overhead cost per unit.
Calculation
Since 5900 units of a product was produced in 3.546 standard hours per unit, total actual standard hour is therefore;
= 5900×3.546
=20,921 hours
Overhead cost per unit = $1.10 per hour
Hours at 100% normal capacity = 21,300 hours.
Recall the formula for fixed factory overhead volume variance is =(budgeted standard hours for 100% normal output- actual standard output hours)× standard fixed overhead per unit.
Therefore;
Fixed factory overhead volume variance =(21,300 hours - 20,921 hours)× $1.10
=379 hours × $1.10
=$417 A
It is therefore an adverse variance.
Answer:
Coverage E - Additional Living Expense
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that this individual has a Coverage E - Additional Living Expense. This is an insurance coverage that covers the home-owner with compensation when they they are not able to live in their house due to an loss or a claim which is insured. Such as damage due to fire, like in this scenario which made the house uninhabitable.
