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Aleksandr-060686 [28]
3 years ago
5

How many miles are equivalent to 3.1 kilometers? 1 kilometer is about 0.62 mile

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anton [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1.922 miles is equivalent to 3.1 kilometers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

1 km = 0.62 miles.

3.1 km = ? miles

Now, in order to find the number of miles equivalent to 3.1 km, we use unitary method with the help of the conversion factor.

From the conversion factor, we can conclude that kilometer is a smaller unit compared to that of mile.

So, conversion factor = \frac{0.62\ miles}{1\ km}

The formula to transform 'n' kilometers to miles is given as:

=Conversion\ factor\times n

Therefore, 3.1 km = \frac{0.62\ miles}{1\ km}\times 3.1\ km

3.1 km = 1.922 miles

Therefore, 1.922 miles is equivalent to 3.1 kilometers.

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lora16 [44]
Two solutions exist,
2(x - 1) = 8
2x - 2 = 8
2x = 10
x = 5
&
2(x + 1) = 8
2x + 2 = 8
2x = 6
x = 3

the two solutions are 5 and 3
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3 years ago
3x^4 +x^3+4x-33<br> x^2+4
icang [17]

Answer:

3x^2 + x -12 + 15/(x^2+4)

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Bob is performing an experiment to learn more about probability. He has a box of pink, yellow, blue, and white ribbons. He rando
shtirl [24]

Answer:

The relative frequency of picking a white ribbon is 0.1

The relative frequency of picking a white ribbon is 0.3

It is most likely that the number of blue ribbons in the box is the highest.

It is most likely that the number of pink ribbons in the box is the lowest.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
4x + 1/2 (8x + 6) = 2(4x + 3)
inysia [295]

Answer:

No solution 0≠3

Step-by-step explanation:

simplify parenthesis:

4x+4x+3=8x+6

combine like terms:

8x+3=8x+6

subtract three from both sides

8x=8x+3

subtract 8x from both sides

0≠3

This equation has no solution

i hope this helps u, pls give brainliest i only need one more then i level up and a thx, leave a comment if i am wrong

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Carlton and Leon are expert bowlers. Seventy percent of Carlton's rolls are strikes, while 67% of Leon's rolls are strikes. Supp
IgorC [24]

Answer:

The probability that Leon strikes is greater than Carlton strike is 0.40905

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, we have;

The percentage of Carlton's rolls are strikes, \hat p_1 = 70%

The number of games Carlton played, n₁ = 25

The percentage of Leon's rolls that are strikes, \hat p_2 = 67%

The number of games Leon played, n₂ = 25

Therefore, we have;

\hat p=\dfrac{k_1 + k_2}{n_1 + n_2}

Where;

k₁ = 0.7 × 25 = 17.5

k₂ = 0.67 × 25 = 16.75

\therefore \hat p=\dfrac{17.5 + 16.75}{25 + 25} = 0.685

The test statistic is given as follows;

Z=\dfrac{\hat{p}_1-\hat{p}_2}{\sqrt{\hat{p} \cdot (1-\hat{p})\cdot \left (\dfrac{1}{n_{1}}+\dfrac{1}{n_{2}}  \right )}}

Z=\dfrac{0.7-0.67}{\sqrt{0.685 \cdot (1-0.685)\cdot \left (\dfrac{1}{25}+\dfrac{1}{25}  \right )}} \approx 0.2283

From the z-table, we have;

The p-value for Carlton strikes is greater than Leon's strike = 0.59095

∴ The p-value for Leon strikes is greater than Carlton strike = 1 - 0.59095 = 0.40905

The probability that Leon strikes is greater than Carlton strike = 0.40905

8 0
3 years ago
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