Answer:
im confused?
Step-by-step explanation:
could you please rewrite this question? what are the numbers for?
do: first of first bracket x first of 2nd bracket
+( first of 1st bracket x 2nd of 2nd bracket)
+(2nd of 1st bracket x 1st of 2nd bracket)
+ (2nd of 1st bracket x 2nd of 2nd bracket)
== 10n -16n +20n+32= 14n+32
Answer:
¼
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of having a boy is ½ and that of a girl is ½.
Probability of boy, boy is (pb*pb) and given pb to be ½ then we can prove the point as follows
For these two children
The options are as follows
1 boy(first) and 1 girl
2 boys
2 girls
1 girl( first) and 1 boy
These are four possible options and the option for two boys is 1 out of the four.
The probability of 2 boys is ½*½=¼
(a) the interquartile range
Would be 72 - 88
the med would be 84
(b) I may be wrong but my guess would be
88% above all the seasons because the scale that was shown went to 100 and that would cause each win to be 1%. the bottom would have to equal out to 12% because that is what we would need to make it equal out to 100.
Hope this helps
Answer:
27.5
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the mean you basically just add all of the numbers then divide by how many there are.
So, for this problem, 19+22+24+45=110
110/4=27.5
Hope this helped!!
