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Mnenie [13.5K]
4 years ago
13

Assume that you are a retail customer. Use the information below to answer the following question. Bid Ask Borrowing Lending S0(

$/€) $1.42 = €1.00 $1.45 = €1.00 i$ 4.25% APR 4% APR F360($/€) $1.48 = €1.00 $1.50 = €1.00 i€ 3.10% APR 3% APR If you borrowed $1,000,000 for one year, how much money would you owe at maturity? A. $1,450,352 B. $1,042,500 C. € 1,024,500 D. $1,525,400
Business
1 answer:
Lunna [17]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$1,042,500.

Explanation:

From the question above, we are given the following parameters; under the bid, we have $1.42 = €1.00 and $1.48 = €1.00; the borrowing and lending are $ 4.25% and 4% APR respectively for S0($/€).

Also, for F360($/€), the bid and ask values are: $1.48 = €1.00 and $1.50 = €1.00 respectively; the borrowing and lending values are 3.10% APR and 3% APR.

Therefore, the Borrowing rate is ($) 4.25% in $ . Thus, $1,000,000 for one year, one we owe

$1,000,000 × (1 + 0.0425) = $1,042,500 at maturity.

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Lagle Corporation has provided the following information: Cost per Unit Cost per Period Direct materials$5.25 Direct labor$3.90
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

$16,050

Explanation:

The computation of the total amount of the period cost is shown below:

= Sales commission per unit × number of units sold + Fixed selling and administrative expense + Variable administrative expense per unit  × number of units sold

= $1.80 × 4,500 units + $6,600 + $0.30 × 4,500 units

= $8,100 + $6,600 + $1,350

= $16,050

7 0
3 years ago
C. the "difference between growth and value shares involves a distinction based on book-to-market value. justify the low book-to
jekas [21]

Answer:

Explanation:

C. the "difference between growth and value shares involves a distinction based on book-to-market value. justify the low book-to-market ratios of growth shares versus high book-to-market ratios of value shares. (10 marks)

6 0
2 years ago
An approach to the SDLC that plans the project in advance and then progresses according to the plan is called what
makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

source-

One of the most common predictive models is the waterfall model. It assumes various phases in the SDLC that can occur sequentially, which implies that one phase leads into the next phase. In simple words, in waterfall model, all the phases take place one at a time and do not overlap one another.

in your own words-  

One of the foremost common prognostic models is that the falls model. It assumes varied phases within the SDLC which will occur consecutive, which suggests that one section leads into following section. In straightforward words, in falls model, all the phases occur one at a time and don't overlap each other.

Explanation:

source is where i got the imformation and the in your own words is it fully rewritten, sorry its a bit lengthy and hope this helps have a god day/night/noon! :)

7 0
2 years ago
Factory Overhead Volume Variance Dvorak Company produced 5,100 units of product that required 3.5 standard hours per unit. The s
AveGali [126]

Answer:

$2,250 Favourable

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the fixed factory overhead volume variance

Fixed factory overhead volume variance=$2.50 × [18,750 hrs. – (5,100 units × 3.5 hrs.)]

Fixed factory overhead volume variance=$2.50×[18,750 hrs. – 17,850 hrs]

Fixed factory overhead volume variance=$2.50×900

Fixed factory overhead volume variance=$2,250 Favourable

Therefore the fixed factory overhead volume variance will be $2,250 Favourable

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3 years ago
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