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Leno4ka [110]
3 years ago
5

Calculate the percentage rate management fees on the following: $575 adjusted per-unit fee, 50 total units, $600,000 annual gros

s income, 15% vacancy and loss rate.
Business
1 answer:
arlik [135]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

19.1% management rate.

Explanation:

Adjusted fee charge per unit = 575

Adjusted fee charge for total unit of product = 575 * 50 = $28750

Net after feel charge on goods = 600000 - 28750 = $571250

15% vacancy and loss rate = .15 * 571250 = $85687.5

Total management fee per year = $114437.5

Percentage rate management fee = (114437.5/600000) *100

= 19.1 %

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2 years ago
At the end of a reporting period, ABC determines that its ending inventory has a cost of $300,000 and a net realizable value of
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

Decrease total assets and net income.

Explanation:

There is an inventory write down because the value of inventory has decreased. The net realizable value of inventory is less than its cost.

Inventory write down involves expensing a part of the inventory asset in the current period.

As a result of the write down, inventory would decrease. Inventory is part of total assets. Thus, total assets would decrease

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6 0
3 years ago
Stine Company uses a job order cost system. On May 1, the company has a balance in Work in Process Inventory of $3,940 and two j
Rainbow [258]

Answer:

Stine Company

1. Journal Entries:

Debit:

Job 429                        $2,770

Job 430                           3,910

Job 431                           4,920

Manufacturing overhead 940

Credit Raw materials $12,540

To record raw materials used.

Debit:

Job 429                          $2,070

Job 430                            3,290

Job 431                              8,150

Manufacturing overhead 1,460

Credit Payroll               $14,970

To record labor consumed in production.

Debit:

Job 429                          $1,428

Job 430                            2,270

Job 431                            5,624

Credit Manufacturing Overhead $9,322

To assign overheads to jobs.

Debit Finished Goods $8,428

Credit Job 429 $8,428

To record the transfer of Job 429 to finished goods.

Debit Work-in-Process $9,322

Credit Manufacturing Overhead $9,322

To assign overheads to work-in-process.

Debit Work-in-Process $11,600

Debit Manufacturing Overhead $940

Credit Raw materials $12,540

To record raw materials used.

Debit Work-in-Process $13,510

Debit Manufacturing Overhead $1,460

Credit Payroll $14,970

To record labor consumed in production.

2. T-Accounts:

Job sheets

                                Job 429    Job 430     Job 431       Total

Beginning balance   $2,160      $1,780                       $3,940

Raw materials            2,770        3,910       $4,920      11,600

Direct labor               2,070       3,290          8,150       13,510

Overhead                  1,428        2,270         5,624       9,322

Finished goods       (8,428)                                          (8,428)

Ending balance     $8,428     $11,250      $18,694  $29,944

Work in Process

Beginning balance  $3,940

Raw materials           11,600

Direct labor               13,510

Overhead                  9,322

Finished goods       (8,428)

Ending balance   $29,944

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Beginning Work in Process Inventory = $3,940

Made up of Job No. 429 = $2,160

and Job No. 430 = $1,780

Job Number       Materials         Labor Time

                     Requisition Slips       Tickets

429                       $2,770              $2,070

430                          3,910                3,290

431                          4,920                 8,150

Total                    $11,600             $13,510

General use             940                 1,460

Total                  $12,540            $14,970

5 0
3 years ago
Last week, Seward Company stock was selling at $66 a share when Ryan sold 300 shares of the stock short. Today Ryan bought 300 s
xenn [34]

Answer:

The answer is: Ryan lost $1,200 dollars

Explanation:

Ryan sold short 300 shares of the stock when it was at $66. This means, he borrowed 300 shares from the broker with the obligation of buying them back later. When you sell short, you want the stock price to go down to make money, because when you buy them back you are buying at a lower price than what you sold them for, and the price difference times the number of shares is your gain.

In this case, the price went up to $70 and he decided to buy them back before the stock went higher up and he lost more money. Since he sold short at $66 and bought back at $70, it means he lost $70-$66=$4 per share. Multiply this by the amount of shares in the transaction $4x300=$1200. And that is the dollar return on his investment which is negative in this case.

5 0
4 years ago
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