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3 years ago

100 POINTS HELP / Which is correct about the graph’s slope?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Anni [7]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

slope is zero

Step-by-step explanation:

it is a horizontal line which means the slope all points that lie on the line have a -coordinate

choli [55]3 years ago

7 0

$\huge\boxed{No\;slope}$

There is no rise over run therefore, there is no slope.

You have to have rise over run to be able to have a slope.

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The coordinates of A and B are (3k, 8) and (k, -3) respectively. Given that the gradient of the line segment AB is 3, find the v

Vladimir [108]

Step-by-step explanation:

gradient = slope or several other words.

it describes how strongly a line (or tangent to a bent curve) is going up or down or ... if it is changing at all.

it is represented by the ratio

(y coordinate change / x coordinate change)

when going from one point on the line to another.

in our case, when going from A to B we have

x changes by -2k (from 3k to k).

y changes by -11 (from 8 to -3).

so, the gradient or slope is

-11/-2k = 3

11/2k = 3

11 = 3×2k = 6k

k = 11/6

A = (33/6, 8) = (11/2, 8)

B = (11/6, -3)

5 0

1 year ago

State a true conclusion.

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

RQ + QS = RS

Hope this helps!

3 0

2 years ago

Find the probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success in any one

oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=7, p=1-0.09=0.91)$

The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want to find this probability:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)$

And we can find the individual probabilities:

$P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358$

$P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517$

And replacing we got:

$P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875$

6 0

3 years ago

Cesar is creating a schedule to practice his instrument for band. He needs to practice for a total of 10 hours in a week. On Mon

ratelena [41]

Answer: See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Your question isn't really clear. Let me help you rephrase it and solve.

Let's say Cesar is creating a schedule to practice his instrument for band. He needs to practice for a total of 10 hours in a week. On Monday he practice for 1 1/2 hours, on Tuesday he practiced for 2 1/4 hours, and on Wednesday he practiced for 1 1/2 hours.

The total hours that Cesar has used in practicing will be:

= 1 1/2 + 2 1/4 + 1 1/2

= 5 1/4

To get the number of hours that Cesar need to practice during the rest of the week in order to have his 10 total hours, we subtract 5 1/4 hours from 10 hours. This will be:

= 10 - 5 1/4

= 4 3/4 hours.

Cesar needs to practice for 4 3/4 hours more.

5 0

3 years ago

Average rate of change from x= 1 and x=2

iragen [17]

Answer:

What are the y values you can not find the average rate of change without the y values.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

2 years ago