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NNADVOKAT [17]
4 years ago
12

Vendor managed inventories are A. an extreme case of forward inventory placement. B. used only for manufacturers. C. more expens

ive than traditional inventory methods but result in superior customer service. D. typically located on the​ supplier's site but actually owned by the customer.
Business
1 answer:
TEA [102]4 years ago
7 0

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Vendor managed inventory refers to a framework in which the buyer let the vendor to take full responsibility to maintain the inventory level as per the buyer's consumption. Under this, the buyer provided the complete information to thew vendor.

Forward inventory placement refers to placing the inventory closer to the customer.

Hence from the above we can conclude that vendor management will bring the inventory closer to the customer.

You might be interested in
Kylie Co. owns 67% of Jayzee Inc. On their 12/31/2017 pre-consolidation trial balances, Kylie reports $739,972 Liabilities and J
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

the amount that should be reported for Liabilities in Kylie's consolidated financial statements is $2,187,382

Explanation:

The computation of the  amount that should be reported for Liabilities in Kylie's consolidated financial statements is shown below:

= $793,972 + $1,601,119 - $207,709

= $2,187,382

Hence, the amount that should be reported for Liabilities in Kylie's consolidated financial statements is $2,187,382

The same should be considered

4 0
3 years ago
Barclay Enterprises manufactures and sells three distinct styles of bicycles: the Youth model sells for $350 and has a unit cont
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

Break-even point in composite units = 811 units

Explanation:

Number of modal;

5 Youth models

9 Adult models

6 Recreational models

Annual fixed costs total = $6,550,000

Find:

Break-even point in composite units

Computation:

Mixed contribution margin = 5[130] + 9[475] + 6[525]

Mixed contribution margin = 650 + 4275 + 3150

Mixed contribution margin = $8075

Break-even point in composite units = Annual fixed costs total / Mixed contribution margin

Break-even point in composite units = 6,550,000 / 8075

Break-even point in composite units = 811 units

3 0
3 years ago
Aspen Company estimates its manufacturing overhead to be $515,000 and its direct labor costs to be $515,000 for year 2. Aspen wo
Step2247 [10]

Answer:

COGS    3807 debit

FG          7896 debit

WIP         2397 debit

  Factory Overhead  14,100 credit

--to record the underapplication of overhead--

Explanation:

overhead rate:

\frac{Cost\: Of \:Manufacturing \:Overhead}{Cost \:Driver}= Overhead \:Rate

$515,000 overhead /  515,000 labor cost = $1

each labor cost generates a dollar of overhead.

221,400 x 1 =   221,400 overhead in COGS

459,200 x 1 = 459,200 overhead in Finished Goods

139,400 x 1 =   139,400 overhead in WIP inventory

Total applied  820,000

Actual            805,900

Underapplied    14,100

Now we weight each concept and determiante the portion underapplocated in each concept

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}Item&Value&Weight&Allocated\\COGS&221400&0.27&3807\\FG&459200&0.56&7896\\WIP&139400&0.17&2397\\&&&\\Total&820000&1&14100\\\end{array}\right]

4 0
3 years ago
Roquan, a single taxpayer, is an attorney and practices as a sole proprietor. This year, Roquan had net business income of $90,0
Ann [662]

Answer:

1) $18,000

2) $0

Explanation:

1) The wage based limits in business applies only to taxpayers with taxable income in excess of $157,500 or excess of $315,000, if it is a joint return.

Now, in this case, Roquan's taxable income which is $100,000 is less than the wage limits of $157,500 earlier stated. This implies that it doesn't qualify for wage-based limits.

Therefore, from business practices, Roquan will likely deduct 20% of the net $90,000 which is $18,000 to serve as deduction for qualified business income.

2) We are told that Roquan's taxable income before the deduction for qualified business income is now $300,000. What this implies is that his law practice would be judged to be a trade business and he would therefore not be eligible for deduction of the qualified business income.

Thus, it's $0.

5 0
3 years ago
$1,000 par value zero-coupon bonds (ignore liquidity premiums)
zavuch27 [327]

Answer:

the expected yield to maturity for bond C in 1 year :

1.0799³ = 1.06 x (1 + r)²

1.188 = (1 + r)²

√1.188 = √(1 + r)²

1.08999 = 1 + r

r = 0.08999 = 9%

the yield to maturity of zero-coupon bonds = (future value / present value)¹/ⁿ - 1

0.09 + 1 = ($1,000 / value in 1 year)¹/²

1.09 = ($1,000 / value in 1 year)¹/²

1.09² = $1,000 / value in 1 year

value in 1 year = $1,000 / 1.09² = $1,000 / 1.1881 = $841.68 ≈ $842

5 0
3 years ago
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