Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
8/v=6/v-3
8*(v-3)=6v
8v-8*3=6v
8v-24=6v
+24 +24
8v=6v+24
-6v -6v
2v=24
v=24/2
v=12 miles /hour
v2=12-3=9 miles /hour ( your friend)
2.8 more people attended more shows in 2006 than in 2009
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
Answer:
First oneB Second one A
Step-by-step explanation:
D) us Americans as men or women really don't get that much recondition. therfore if they can reach it easily, why would the get represented. imagine like the willy wonka and the charlie factory they only had 5 tickets in the whole world. if the whole world had them it wouldn't be as exselirating.
