Answer:
$76.856 million
Explanation:
As we know that Balance sheet is divided in two portions.
1. Total Assets (Current Assets + Fixed Assets)
2. Total Liabilities and Share Holders' Equity.
and they both should be equal. So we can write from the above information, as:
Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Total Common Stock + Retained Earnings
N.B. We are excluding Cash from our calculation cause we assume that Cash is already been included in Total Assets.
Hence, by putting the values in above equation we can find our Retained Earnings as:
Retained Earnings + $128.230 million + $6.350 million = $211.436 million
Retained Earnings + $134.58 million = $211.436 million
Retained Earnings = $211.436 million - $134.58 million
Retained Earnings = $76.856 million
Answer: The correct answer is A) The subsidiary revalues assets and liabilities to their fair values as of the acquisition date.
Explanation: Push down accounting is used when a company buys another company. This type of accounting revalues the assets and liabilities of the acquired company at a fair value on the date of acquisition.
The
necessary adjusting entry to record inventory shortage would be:
“Cost of
Merchandise Sold debit $5,000; Merchandise Inventory credit $5,000.”
Cost of Merchandise
Sold is the cost of goods and services that correspond to sales made to
customers. In this case, we need to decrease ending inventory by the quantity
of these goods ($5,000) that either were shipped to customers or assigned as
being customer-owned under a certain agreement. Meanwhile, the merchandise inventory is the cost of goods on hand and is available for sale ($5,000).
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Answer:
It will take 2.72 years and 32.64 months.
Explanation:
Future value is the sum of principal amount and compounded interest amount invested on a specific rate for a specific period of time.
Use following formula to calculate the time period.
FV = PV x ( 1+ r )^n
FV = Future value = $6,000
PV = Present Value = $4,000
r = rate of interest = 15% yearly = 15% / 12 = 1.25%
n = time period = ?
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1 + 1.25% )^n
$6,000 = $4,000 x ( 1.0125 )^n
$6,000 / $4,000 = ( 1.0125 )^n
1.5 = ( 1.0125 )^n
Log 1.5 = n log 1.0125
n = Log 1.5 / log 1.0125
n = 32.64 months
n = 2.72 years
Answer:
accrual method = $4000
cash method = $12000
Explanation:
given data
rent = $1000
time = 12 month
to find out
maximum amount of rent
solution
we know from 1 September mika start paying rent
so September to December = 4 months
so by accrual method
accrual method = rent × time
accrual method = 1000 × 4
accrual method = $4000
and
by cash method
cash method = rent × time
cash method = 1000 × 12
cash method = $12000
