How many owners can own a partnership

The shape of a production possibility curve is downward-sloping because ____________________. Select the correct answer below: y

Afina-wow [57]

Answer:

you can get more of one good only by giving up some of another good

Explanation:

A production possibilities frontier shows the opportunity cost of producing one good instead of another. This way, as you follow the curve, the combination of goods will vary, increasing the production of one good but deceasing the production of the other.

Opportunity costs are the benefits lost or extra costs associated to choosing one activity or investment over another alternative. Since resources are scarce, you must always give something up in order to obtain another thing, e.g. you give up your leisure time in order to study.

8 0

3 years ago

. Tiger Mfg. owns a manufacturing facility that is currently sitting idle. The facility is located on a piece of land that origi

N76 [4]

Answer: $1,200,000

Explanation:

The firm should include $1,200,000 as the cost of the Manufacturing facility for a new project in it's analysis.

This is because $1,200,000 is the opportunity cost of not selling the facility. The old costs that were incurred for the land and the facility are to be considered sunk costs as they have already been incurred and the only relevant cost now is what the market will pay for the facility which is $1,200,000.

4 0

3 years ago

Suppose you are currently invested 100% in U.S. stocks and you CANNOT short: a.Find the portfolio that maximizes expected return

Volgvan

Answer:

Part a: The portfolio which maximizes the expected return is in the attached file.

Part b:The portfolio's expected rate of return is 11.20% and the weight is 100% for US only.

Explanation:

As the question is incomplete and the data is not available, thus the complete question is found as attached with the solution.

The Sharpe rate is given as

$S_a=\frac{E_a-E_r}{\sigma}$

Where

E_a is the estimated rate of return for a value
E_r is the risk free rate of return
σ is the standard deviation of the investment.

The portfolio variance is given as

$\sigma^2_{portfolio}=\sum_{i}^{n}{\sigma_i^2w_i^2}+\sum_{i}^{n(n-1)/2}{cv_i}$

Where

σ is the standard deviation of the investment.
w is the weighted value of the investment
cv is the covariance term

Portfolio standard deviation is given as

$\sigma_{portfolio}=\sqrt{\sigma^2_{portfolio}}$

Expected rate is given as

$E_{rate of return}=\sum_{i=1}^{n}{E_a_i\times w_i}$

Now the Sharp value is calculated as above.

Now the values as given in the excel sheet are added in the attached excel sheet, following formulas are used to calculate various values

Sharpe ratio is calculated using =(B6-J3)/C6

Portfolio variance is calculated using (=B13^2*C6^2+B14^2*C7^2+B15^2*C8^2+B16^2*C9^2+2*B13*B14*C6*C7*D7+2*B13*B15*C6*C8*D8+2*B13*B16*C6*C9*D9+2*B14*B15*C7*C8*E8+2*B14*B16*C7*C9*E9+2*B15*B16*C8*C9*F9)

Portfolio standard deviation is SQRT(Variance)

Expected return is calculated using =B13*B6+B14*B7+B15*B8+B16*B9

Sharpe is calculated using =(B23-$J$3)/B22

Part a:

The portfolio which maximizes the expected return is in the attached file.

Part b:

The portfolio's expected rate of return is 11.20% and the weight is 100% for US only.

4 0

3 years ago

Accounts receivable turnover and days’ sales in receivables For two recent years, Robinhood Company reported the following: 20Y9

jasenka [17]

Answer:

Accounts receivable for 2019 = $590,000

Accounts receivable for 2018 = $570,000

Explanation:

The computation of accounts receivable for both years is shown below:-

2019 2018

Sales $7,906,000 $6,726,000

Accounts receivable

Beginning balance $600,000 $540,000

Ending balance $580,000 $600,000

Accounts receivable $590,000 $570,000

Working note:-

Average Accounts receivable for 2019 = ($600,000 + $580,000) ÷ 2

= $590,000

Average Accounts receivable for 2018 = ($540,000 + $600,000) ÷ 2

= $570,000

7 0

3 years ago

Which of the following accounts would not appear on a schedule of cost of goods manufactured?

kotykmax [81]

The following accounts would appear on a schedule of cost of goods manufactured- Depreciation of factory equipment

Explanation:

The cost of goods manufactured (COGM) schedule is used to calculate the cost of all the items produced during a given reporting period.

The cost of good manufactured schedule gives companies an idea about their production cost(i.e whether it is too high or low) in relation to the sales they are making

The formula to calculate the COGM is:

Add: Direct Materials Used

Add: Direct Labor Used

Add: Manufacturing Overhead

Add: Beginning Work in Process (WIP) Inventory

Deduct: Ending Work in Process (WIP) Inventory

= COGM

7 0

3 years ago