Answer:
The explanation is given below:
Explanation:
According to this situation it can be defined as
Pursuant to U.C.C. § 3-203, transfer of instrument is when an instrument is delivered by a person other than an issuer for the purpose of giving to a receiver the right to enforce the instrument. The transfer vests in a transferee the transferor's right to enforce the instrument. The rights include the right as a holder in due course. However, the transferee cannot acquire rights of a holder in due course by a transfer, directly or indirectly, from a holder in due course if the transferee engaged in fraud or illegality affecting the instrument. When an instrument is transferred for value , a transferee does not become a holder because of lack of indorsement. Moreover, when a transferor purports to transfer less than the entire instrument, the negotiation of the instrument does not occur.
The best response of Fannie mae’s to this argument is because Becky Smith signed a note and she cannot own that property as the note was in country home loans name and he defaulted payment under that law.
Answer:
She should expect either the pharmacy directory in hard copy or a distinct and separate notice (in hard copy) describing where she can find the pharmacy directory online and how to request a hard copy.
Explanation:
Additionally, I will also mention that The main difference between medicare advantage plan and Normal medicare is that normal medicare will include wide coverage provided by the government, but the quality of services provided for the medicare advantage plan will be better on average.
The pharmacy directory mentioned above can be used by Mrs. Patterson to choose the type of Specific health services that she wants, the type of specialists that she prefers and the location of treatment that is the most convenient to her. (this type of benefits wouldn't be found in normal plan)
Explanation:
i=interest rate
X=current rate
2X = double current rate
n = number of years
Calculate time it takes to double at 3%:
2X = X(1+i)^n
simplify by cancelling out X
(1+i)^n = 2
substitute i = 3%
(1.03)^n =2
take log
n*log(1.03) = log(2)
n = log(2)/log(1.03) = 0.6931/0.02956 = 23.45 years
Similarly, for growth rate of 7%,
n = log(2)/log(1.07) = 0.6931 / 0.06766 = 10.24 years
So the difference is 23.45-10.24 = 13.21 years (to the hundredth) sooner
To calculate:
1) Net income (loss) for 2010.
2) Operating cash flow
Solution: 1)
Sales = $850000
Less: Cost of goods sold = $610000
Gross profit = $240000
Less: Administrative and selling expenses = $110000
Earning before Interest, Tax and Depreciation = $130000
Less: Depreciation = $140000
Earning before Interest and Tax (EBIT) = ($10000)
Less: Interest expense = $85000
Earning before tax (EBT) = ($95000)
Less: Tax = $0 (as company is having negative EBT or loss hence no tax)
Net loss = $95000
2) Operating cash flow
EBIT + Depreciation - Tax
Wherein, EBIT = Earning before Interest and Tax
($10000) + 140000 - 0 = $130000
Answer:
19
Explanation:
The euro is the sole currency of 19 EU member states: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Portugal, Slovakia, Slovenia, and Spain.
