Could someone help me? I can't understand anything
1 answer:
Answer:
I will only help with number one so you can learn how to do it. If you still dont understand, let me know and ill be here to help.
Step-by-step explanation:
> 21
what you have to do is get the x to be on its own. So we need to get rid of the 4. Since it's a fraction and fractions are division, you need to multiply both sides by 4. The reason as to why you multiply is because multiplication is the opposite if division. By multiplying both sides you get rid of the four and you are left with:
x>84
Again, let me know if you still need help.
You might be interested in
Answer:
a) P(x≥6)=0.633
b) P(4≤x≤8)=0.8989 (one standard deviation from the mean).
c) P(x≤7)=0.8328
Step-by-step explanation:
a) We can model this a binomial experiment. The probability of success p is the proportion of customers that prefer the oversize version (p=0.60).
The number of trials is n=10, as they select 10 randomly customers.
We have to calculate the probability that at least 6 out of 10 prefer the oversize version.
This can be calculated using the binomial expression:
b) We first have to calculate the standard deviation from the mean of the binomial distribution. This is expressed as:
The mean of this distribution is:
As this is a discrete distribution, we have to use integer values for the random variable. We will approximate both values for the bound of the interval.
The probability of having between 4 and 8 customers choosing the oversize version is:
c. The probability that all of the next ten customers who want this racket can get the version they want from current stock means that at most 7 customers pick the oversize version.
Then, we have to calculate P(x≤7). We will, for simplicity, calculate this probability substracting P(x>7) from 1.