Answer:
A) There is a 50% chance the game ends in a tie, 10% chance you win (and therefore a 40% chance you lose).
expected value = (50% x 20) + (10% x 50) + (40% x 0) = 10 + 5 + 0 = 15
B) There is a 50-50 chance of winning and there are no ties.
expected value = (50% x 50) + (50% x 0) + = 25 + 0 = 25
C) There is an 80% chance you lose and a 10% chance you win or tie.
expected value = (10% x 20) + (10% x 50) + (80% x 0) = 2 + 5 + 0 = 7
The expected value of an event is determined by adding up all the possible outcomes multiplied by their respective value.
Answer:
Logan Horse Ranch
The most accurate is:
e. None of the above are correct
Explanation:
Logan's payment to his brother, Luke, of $500 per hour, is not a reasonable business expense that can be deductible. Surely, $500 per hour is not a going rate for cleaning the horse stalls per hour. With Lucy doing grocery shopping for Logan, it does not resonate like an ordinary and necessary expense for the business. Therefore, options A to D are not correct. This leaves only option E as the most accurate.
Assuming Reggie who is 55, had an adjusted gross income of $32,000 in 2020, Reggies medical expense deduction will be $75
Calculation to determine Reggie medical expense deduction
Drugs $500
Add Health insurance premium-after tax $850
Add Doctors fees $1,250
Add Eye glasses $375
Total expenses $2,975
($500+$850+$1,250+$375)
Less Insurance reimbursement ($500)
Less 7.5% of Adjusted gross income ($2,400)
($32,000×7.5%)
Medical Expense Deduction $75
($2,975 - $500 - $2,400)
Inconclusion assuming Reggie who is 55, had an adjusted gross income of $32,000 in 2020, Reggies medical expense deduction will be $75
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brainly.com/question/17136095
Answer:
Present value (PV) = $1,000
Interest rate (r) =8% = 0.08
Number of years (n) = 18 months = 1.5 years
No of compounding periods in a year = 4
Future value (FV) = ?
FV = PV(1 + r/m)nm
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.08/4)1.5x4
FV = $1,000(1 + 0.02)6
FV = $1,000 x 1.1262
FV = $1,126
Explanation:
The amount to be received in 18 months is $1,126. This is obtained by compounding the present value at 8% compounded quarterly for 18 months. The formula to be applied is the formula for future value of a lump sum(single investment).
Answer:
The answer is A
Explanation:
The loan is an interest only loan since he is only paying the interest potion of 7%
Interest only loan is when the borrower pays only the interest for some or all the term of the loan with no changes in the borrowed amount