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Neko [114]
3 years ago
6

Finn Manufacturing Company uses a job order cost accounting system and keeps perpetual inventory records. June 1 Purchased raw m

aterials for $20,000 on account. 8 Raw materials requisitioned by production: Direct materials $8,000 Indirect materials 1,000 15 Paid factory utilities, $2,100 and repairs for factory equipment, $8,000. 25 Incurred $108,000 of factory labor. 25 Time tickets indicated the following: Direct Labor (7,000 hrs × $12 per hr) = $84,000 Indirect Labor (3,000 hrs × $8 per hr) = 24,000 $108,000 25 Applied manufacturing overhead to production based on a predetermined overhead rate of $7 per direct labor hour worked. 28 Goods costing $18,000 were completed in the factory and were transferred to finished goods. 30 Goods costing $15,000 were sold for $20,000 on account.
Business
1 answer:
Gelneren [198K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

raw materials    20000 debit

accounts payable   20000

WIP         8000 debit

factory overhead 1000 debit

raw materials   9000 credit

WIP           84000 debit

factory overhead 24000 debit

wages payables  108000 credit

factory overhead     10100  debit

cash   10100 credit

WIP   49000 debit

factory overhead   49000 credit

Finished Goods   18000 debit

WIP inventory   18000 credit

COGS   15000 debit

Finished Goods   15000 credit

Explanation:

The indirect materials and labor will be considered actual factory overhead thus debited into that account

same procedures applies to the repair and utilities paid in cash we have to posted into factory overehad

from the cost sheet we determiante 7,000 labor hours we apply the $7 overhead rate per our to get the amount of applied overhead

The finished goods will increase while the WIP inventory decrease by the ammount transferred out

The COGS is an expense which decreases our finished goods inventory as we sale them and are no longer in our possesion.

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2 years ago
Golden Eye Co., a hi-tech satellite company, has asked you to value the company for possible cross-listing in the U.S. The compa
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Answer:

Explanation:

Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm

Particulars                            Years

                          1                         2                   3

EBIT                  540                   680                750

<u>Tax at 36%    (0.36*540)       (0.36*680)        (0.36*750)    </u>

Less:               345.6                  435.2            480

Net Capital -

Spending            150                   170                 190

<u>Change in NWC    70                    75                  80      </u>

Less:                    125.6              190.2                210

The terminal value at the end of T =(3  years) is:

= \dfrac{Free \ cash \ flow}{unlevered \ cost - expected \ growth  \ rate}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1643-0.04}

= \dfrac{250}{0.1243}

= 2011.26

Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:

Years                  Free Cash Flow        PVIF           PV

1                          125.6                        0.6589        107.88

2                         190.2                        0.7377         140.31

3                          210                           0.6336       133.06

<u>Terminal Value  2011.26                    0.6336        1294.33     </u>

<u>Value of the firm   ⇒                                               $1655.58</u>

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"MMP Incorporated generated FCF in the most recently completed year of $780,000. We expect FCF to grow by 10% in year 1, 8% in y
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

The value per share of common stock today is $23.94

Explanation:

To calculate the worth of the stock today, we first need to calculate the value of firm using FCF and then calculate the value of equity by deducting the market value of debt and preferred stock from the value of firm. Then we will divide the value of equity by the number of common stock shares.

Value of firm will be calculated using the discounted cash flows model approach. The value of firm will be,

Value of firm = 780000 * (1+0.1) / (1+0.13)   +   780000 * (1+0.1) * (1+0.08) / (1+0.13)^2  +  780000 *(1+0.1)*(1+0.08)*(1+0.07) / (1+0.13)^3  +  

[ 780000 *(1+0.1) *( 1+0.08) *(1+0.07) *(1+0.06)) / (0.13 - 0.06)] / (1+0.13)^3

Value of firm = $12,577,754.16

Value of equity = $12,577,754.16  -  (2000000 + 1000000)  = $9,577,754.159

Value per share = $9,577,754.159 / 400000

Value per share = $23.944 rounded off to $23.94

6 0
3 years ago
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