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Tcecarenko [31]
3 years ago
10

Find the number c that satisfies the conclusion of the Mean Value Theorem on the given interval. (Enter your answers as a comma-

separated list. If an answer does not exist, enter DNE.) f(x) = x , [0, 4]
Mathematics
1 answer:
Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The number c is 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mean Value Theorem:

If f is a continuous function in a bounded interval [0,4], there is at least one value of c in (a,b) for which:

f(c) = \frac{1}{b-a}\int\limits^a_b {f(x)} \, dx

In this problem, we have that:

f(x) = x, a = 0, b = 4

So f(c) = c

----------

f(c) = \frac{1}{b-a}\int\limits^a_b {f(x)} \, dx

c = \frac{1}{4-0}\int\limits^0_4 {x} \, dx

c = \frac{1}{4-0}*8

c = 2

The number c is 2.

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9 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

The radius is 1/2 of the diameter

r = d/2

r = 18/2 = 9

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2?

Step-by-step explanation:

2 is the square root of 4 since 2×2=4

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The monthly cost of a short term disability insurance policy varies directly as the salary of the employee. Wanda has an annual
arlik [135]

Answer: $14.85

Step-by-step explanation:

Ww can solve the question using direct proportion with the formula y = kx

where y = annual salary

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Since y = kx

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k = 38500 / 11.55

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The amount that Randy expect to pay for his policy will be $14.85

8 0
2 years ago
7=40/z-1<br> z=<br> what dose the z equal?
monitta

Answer:

z =  \frac{47}{7} = 6 \frac{5}{7}

Step-by-step explanation:

7 =  \frac{40}{z - 1}  \\ 7(z - 1) = 40 \\ 7z - 7 = 40 \\ 7z = 40 + 7 \\ 7z = 47 \\

\boxed{\bold{Answer:{\boxed{\green{\bold{z =  \frac{47}{7} = 6 \frac{5}{7}}}}}}}

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8 0
2 years ago
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A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 17

She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.5

Compute the probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

This is

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

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P(X = 1) = C_{17,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{16} = 0.0001

P(X = 2) = C_{17,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{15} = 0.0010

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0.0001 + 0.0010 = 0.0011

0.0011 = 0.11% probability of selling less than 3 properties in one week.

5 0
3 years ago
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