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storchak [24]
3 years ago
11

Scarlet has a box with 16 black pens and 8 red pens. The probability that a pen randomly picked from the box is a red pen is . S

carlet uses a six-sided die to find the probability that each color of pen is picked. She assigns the numbers 1 and 4 on the die for red pens, and assigns 2, 3, 5, and 6 for black pens. Using this simulation, the probability of picking a red pen is , and the simulation used is .
Mathematics
2 answers:
kumpel [21]3 years ago
3 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

Number of black pens = 16

Number of red pens = 8

Total pens = 16+8=24

1. So, the probability that a pen randomly picked from the box is a red pen is :

\frac{8}{24}= \frac{1}{3}

2. She assigns the numbers 1 and 4 on the die for red pens, and assigns 2, 3, 5, and 6 for black pens. Using this simulation, the probability of picking a red pen is : \frac{2}{6} =\frac{1}{3}

3. The simulation used is suitable.

sp2606 [1]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 1 is c

2 is c

3 is a

Since probability is the part to the whole. 8/24 which simplifies to 1/3

On the dice it has 2 spots for red and 4 for black which part to whole is 2/6 which is 1/3. Which gets to the same answer to make it correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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k= 3 \to  s_3 = \frac{1}{3+1} - \frac{1}{3+2}\\\\

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S=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+.....\frac{1}{n+1}-\frac{1}{n+2}\\\\

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When s_n \ \ dt_{n \to 0}

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\boxed{\text{In point 1:} \sum ^{\infty}_{k = 1} \frac{1}{k+1} - \frac{1}{k+2} =\frac{4}{5}}

In point 2: \sum ^{\infty}_{k = 1} \frac{1}{(k+6)(k+7)}

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when s_n \ \ dt_{n \to 0}

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\boxed{\text{In point 2:} \sum ^{\infty}_{k = 1} \frac{1}{(n+6)(n+7)} = 0.066}

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