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KATRIN_1 [288]
3 years ago
5

On June 1, 2018, Dirty Harry Co. borrowed cash by issuing a 6-month noninterest-bearing note with a maturity value of $560,000 a

nd a discount rate of 5%. Assuming straight-line amortization of the discount, what is the carrying value of the note as of September 30, 2018?
Business
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

PV 550,506.64

Explanation:

Nominal \times (1 - \: discount \: rate)^{time} = \: Present \: Value

560,000 \times \: (1-0.05)^{4/12} = PV

<em>PV = 550,506.64</em>

<u>We can convert the discount rate to interest rate and reach the same value:</u>

i= \frac{d}{1-d} = 0.05/0.95 = 0.052631578

\frac{Nominal}{(1+rate)^{time}} = PV

\frac{560,000}{(1+0.052631578)^{1/3}} = PV

<em>PV = 550,506.64</em>

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Since the researchers are planning to use English and French versions of the survey, then in the preparation of the survey, they should use backtranslation.

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The 2016 financial statements of The New York Times Company reveal average shareholders’ equity attributable to controlling inte
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Read 2 more answers
Brickhouse is expected to pay a dividend of $2.60 and $2.24 over the next two years, respectively. After that, the company is ex
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Answer:

$29.83

Explanation:

This question requires application of dividend discount model, according to which current value of share is present value of dividends expected in future.

P0=\frac{Div1}{(1+r)^{1} }+\frac{Div2}{(1+r)^{2} }+\frac{V2}{(1+r)^{2} }

where V2 is the terminal value, present value of dividends growing at constant growth rate,

V2 = Div3 ÷ (r - g)

Div3 = $2.24 × (1 + 2.8%)

        = $2.30272

V2 = $2.30272 ÷ (0.102 - 0.028)

    = $2.30272 ÷ 0.074

    = $31.12

P0=\frac{2.60}{(1+0.102)^{1} }+\frac{2.24}{(1+0.102)^{2} }+\frac{31.12}{(1+0.102)^{2} }

P0=\frac{2.60}{1.102}+\frac{2.24}{1.214404}+\frac{31.12}{1.214404}

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6 0
3 years ago
In an FRA, the buyer agrees to pay the seller
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C.

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Essay: 1. Difference between Moral Hazard and Morale Hazard, Why Moral Hazard is important concept to insurance company? 2. The
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Answer:

1. The difference between :          Moral Hazard              

<u>Intentions </u>     - An individual is aware of what he is doing and intentionally goes for the risk because he knows he is covered and will gain as the payment or any related cost to sustaining an injury or a loss will not be paid by him but will be paid for by the insurance as it covered. Actions are intentional and potential risks increases as the behavior becomes irresponsible and careless.

                                                  Morale Hazard

<u>Intentions </u>     - An individual's behavior unintentionally changes and so does the attitude toward the insured item changes. Here an individual losses responsibility unintentionally and unconsciously acts reckless as they know know it is insured.

main difference are intentions

Moral Hazard is an important concept to insurance companies because Insurance companies need to know the intentions of the person, insurance is not for gain but for cover against the possibility of a risk and the person insured should not seek for the risk and actually drive the risk or be the cause of the risk occurring.

2. No, I do not think it should be eliminate. it is obvious that moral hazard does in a way seem like it is encouraging bad behavior but risks must be insured. The insurance companies should enforce some claim charges for this kind of insurance.

Explanation:

7 0
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