Answer:
A) It is a use of cash, and will be shown in the investing section as a subtraction.
B) Depreciation Expense
C) Chester’s long-term debt will rise by $10,000,000
D) Broad differentiation
E) Andrews ROE will increase.
Explanation:
A) As the company will do a cash dibursement will be considered cash use and because is investing on it to increase future cash flow
B) A period cost is a cost which cannot be capitalized into an asset. As cost which occur as the time passes over the years Which is the case for depreciation expense
C) bonds payable for 10,000,000 will be recorded
the leverage is a ratio to analize the firm it does not influence the accounting
D) The company differenciate his products from the rest of their competitors in a great variety of products rather than a single buyer segment.
E) ROE will increase as the leverage makes the debt weight increase while the equity weight (proportion of the company owned by the stockholders)
For the rest ofthe options the information provided is insufficient please do another question with the information
Answer:
1.
r market = 0.12 or 12%
2.
r stock = 0.12 or 12%
3.
r Stock = 0.169 or 16.9%
Explanation:
The required rate of return can be calculated using the CAPM or Capital asset pricing model equation. The formula for required rate of return under this model is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
- rRF is the risk free rate
- rpM is the risk premium on market
- r represents the required rate of return
1.
The beta of the market is always considered to be 1. Thus, the required rate of return on market would be,
r market = 0.05 + 1 * 0.07
r market = 0.12 or 12%
2.
For a stock whose beta is 1.0, the required rate of return would be same as that for market. So, the required rate of return for a stock with a beta of 1.0 is,
r Stock = 0.05 + 1 * 0.07
r Stock = 0.12 or 12%
3.
The required rate of return for a stock with a beta of 1.7 is,
r Stock = 0.05 + 1.7 * 0.07
r Stock = 0.169 or 16.9%
Answer:
ello
Explanation:
I'll be your fren if that's what cha asking :^
Answer:
Explanation:
MIRR equation is given by :
[(FV +ve cashflow / PV -ve cashflow)^(1/n)] - 1
FV +ve cashflow = Future value of positive cashflow at reinvestment rate
PV - ve cashflow = Present value of negative cashflow at finance rate
n = number of periods
The Modified Internal Rate of Return is a devised modification for the Internal rate of return, IRR which gives rate of return on percentage and overcomes the limitations of the IRR formula.
Answer:
$12,053.86
Explanation:
The easiest way to calculate this is using an excel spreadsheet and the future value function. Using the FV function =FV(rate,nper,pmt)
- rate = 3%/12 = 0.25%
- nper = 36
- pmt = 175
This function will give us the future value of the annuity =FV(0.25%,36,175) = $6,583.60
Now we must add the future value of the original $5,000:
future value = $5,000 x (1 + 0.0025)³⁶ = $5,470.26
total future value = $6,583.60 + $5,470.26 = $12,053.86
if you do not want to use an excel spreadsheet, you can use the following formula:
F = P x ([1 + r]ⁿ - 1 )/r
F = 175 x [(1 + 0.0025)³⁶ - 1] / 0.0025 = $6,583.60
the answer will be the same