20 % of 2 is equal to A. 20 B. 4 C. 0.4 D. 0.04

The force of gravity on Mars is different than on Earth. The function of the same situation on Mars would be represented by the

sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

If thrown up with the same speed, the ball will go highest in Mars, and also it would take the ball longest to reach the maximum and as well to return to the ground.

Step-by-step explanation:

Keep in mind that the gravity on Mars; surface is less (about just 38%) of the acceleration of gravity on Earth's surface. Then when we use the kinematic formulas:

$v=v_0+a\,*\,t\\y-y_0=v_0\,* t + \frac{1}{2} a\,\,t^2$

the acceleration (which by the way is a negative number since acts opposite the initial velocity and displacement when we throw an object up on either planet.

Therefore, throwing the ball straight up makes the time for when the object stops going up and starts coming down (at the maximum height the object gets) the following:

$v=v_0+a\,*\,t\\0=v_0-g\,*\,t\\t=\frac{v_0}{t}$

When we use this to replace the 't" in the displacement formula, we et:

$y-y_0=v_0\,* t + \frac{1}{2} a\,\,t^2\\y-y_0=v_0\,(\frac{v_0}{g} )-\frac{g}{2} \,(\frac{v_0}{g} )^2\\y-y_0=\frac{1}{2} \frac{v_0^2}{g}$

This tells us that the smaller the value of "g", the highest the ball will go (g is in the denominator so a small value makes the quotient larger)

And we can also answer the question about time, since given the same initial velocity $v_0$ , the smaller the value of "g", the larger the value for the time to reach the maximum, and similarly to reach the ground when coming back down, since the acceleration is smaller (will take longer in Mars to cover the same distance)

3 0

2 years ago

Help me please‼️

aksik [14]

Answer:

a.

500x+0.04=y

400x+0.05=y

for percentages move decimal to the left twice

4 0

2 years ago

Multiply and verify the result by taking x=1 y=2 z=3 (2x-2y) to the power 2

expeople1 [14]

Answer:

find your answer on math papa

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

6. If the net investment function is given by

Pachacha [2.7K]

The capital formation of the investment function over a given period is the

accumulated capital for the period.

(a) The capital formation from the end of the second year to the end of the fifth year is approximately 298.87.

(b) The number of years before the capital stock exceeds $100,000 is approximately 46.15 years.

Reasons:

(a) The given investment function is presented as follows;

$I(t) = 100 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}$

(a) The capital formation is given as follows;

$\displaystyle Capital = \int\limits {100 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}} \, dt =1000 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}} + C$

From the end of the second year to the end of the fifth year, we have;

The end of the second year can be taken as the beginning of the third year.

Therefore, for the three years; Year 3, year 4, and year 5, we have;

$\displaystyle Capital = \int\limits^5_3 {100 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}} \, dt \approx 298.87$

The capital formation from the end of the second year to the end of the fifth year, C ≈ 298.87

(b) When the capital stock exceeds $100,000, we have;

$\displaystyle \mathbf{\left[1000 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}} + C \right]^t_0} = 100,000$

Which gives;

$\displaystyle 1000 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}} - 1000 = 100,000$

$\displaystyle \mathbf{1000 \cdot e^{0.1 \cdot t}}} = 100,000 + 1000 = 101,000$

$\displaystyle e^{0.1 \cdot t}} = 101$

$\displaystyle t = \frac{ln(101)}{0.1} \approx 46.15$

The number of years before the capital stock exceeds $100,000 ≈ 46.15 years.

Learn more investment function here:

brainly.com/question/25300925

6 0

2 years ago

Match each operation involving f(x) and g(x) to its answer.

galben [10]

F(x)=1-x² and g(x)=√(11-4x)

(g+f)(2)=>

1-(2)²+√(11-4(2))

=√3-3

(f/g)(-1)

(1-(-1)²)/(√(11-4(-1))

=0

(g-f)(-1)

√(11-4*-1)-(1-(-1)²

=√15

(g×f)(2)

1-(2)²×√(11-4(2))

-3√3

8 0

2 years ago