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denis-greek [22]
3 years ago
10

While eating fatty food, you accidentally dropped some oil on your dress. How will you remove the oily stain from your dress?

Physics
1 answer:
sveticcg [70]3 years ago
5 0
Use a little liquid dishwashing detergent (the kind you use for hand washing dishes) to pretreat the stains. Apply a few drops to each stain and let it soak in, rubbing it gently to help work it all the way in if you need to. Wait 5 minutes, and then rinse with warm water.
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Skater 1 has a mass of 105.0 kg and a velocity of 2.0 m/s to the left. He
mart [117]

The final velocity of skater 1 is 3.7 m/s to the right. The right option is O A. 3.7 m/s to the right.

<h3>What is velocity?</h3>

Velocity can be defined as the ratio of the displacement and time of a body.

To calculate the final velocity of Skater 1 we use the formula below.

Formula:

  • mu+MU = mv+MV............ Equation 1

Where:

  • m = mass of the first skater
  • M = mass of the second skater
  • u = initial velocity of the first skater
  • U = initial velocity of the second skater
  • v = final velocity of the first skater
  • V = final velocity of the second skater.

make v the subject of the equation.

  • v = (mu+MU-MV)/m................ Equation 2

Note: Let left direction represent negative and right direction represent positive.

From the question,

Given:

  • m = 105 kg
  • u = -2 m/s
  • M = 71 kg
  • U = 5 m/s
  • V = -3.4 m/s.

Substitute these values into equation 2

  • v = [(105×(-2))+(71×5)-(71×(-3.4))]/105
  • v = (-210+355+241.4)/105
  • v = 386.4/105
  • v = 3.68 m/s
  • v ≈ 3.7 m/s

Hence, the final velocity of skater 1 is 3.7 m/s to the right. The right option is O A. 3.7 m/s to the right.

Learn more about velocity here: brainly.com/question/25749514

7 0
2 years ago
Why it is difficult to run fast in sand​
balu736 [363]
Running on sand requires 1.6 times more energy spent than running on hard surface, so the force applied by our foot on sand is less.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If your friend said that kinetic energy was changing to potential energy at point C, how would you respond? A) your friend is co
Travka [436]

funny of u to assume I have friends

If I remember anything from that part of my education (not great at physics) I'd say the answer is A, though I admit i'm not 100% sure

I dunno how to explain, once it hits that's the energy that was converting I guess.

3 0
3 years ago
A copper wire loop has a circular shape, with a radius a (see below). The loop is put perpendicularly to the uniform magnetic fi
Luda [366]

Answer:

 fem = -A β

Explanation:

Faraday's law gives the induced electromotive source (emf)

           fem = - \ \frac{d \phi_B }{dt}

the magnetic flux is

           \phi_B = B. A = B A cos θ

the bold are vectros.  In this case the normal to the ring is parallel to the magnetic field so the angle is zero  cos 0 = 1, also the area of the ring is constant

             fem = -A  \frac{dB}{dt}

we carry out the derivative of the function B = α + β t

            fem = -A β

so we see that there is an electromotive force in the ring.

5 0
3 years ago
Solids are often defined as having a definite shape, while gases and liquids have no definite shape. This can best be explained
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

the reason is that solids have a definite shape because of less energy moving they are still moving but liquids and gases move a lot more than a solid they are not ORDERED into position right it is because of the energy movement in the object.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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