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GuDViN [60]
3 years ago
13

Starset, Inc., has a target debt-equity ratio of 1.15. Its WACC is 8.6 percent, and the tax rate is 21 percent.

Business
1 answer:
aev [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. 4.94%

b. 11.48%

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the pretax cost of debt and cost of equity.

We proceed as follows;

a. From the question;

The debt equity ratio = 1.15

since Equity = 1 ; Then

Total debt + Total equity = 1 + 1.15 = 2.15

Mathematically ;

WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Pretax Cost of debt x Weight of debt x (1-Tax rate)

Where WACC = 8.6%

Cost of equity = 14%

Weight of equity = 1/(total debt + total equity) = 1/(1+1.15) = 1/2.15

Pretax cost of debt = ?

Weight of debt = debt equity ratio/total cost of debt = 1.15/2.15

Tax rate = 21% = 0.21

Substituting these values, we have;

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

Pretax cost debt = (8.6%-6.511628%)/(1.15/2.15 x (1-21%))

Pretax cost of debt = 4.94%

b. WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + After tax Cost of debt x Weight of debt

8.6% = Cost of equity x 1/2.15 + 6.1% x 1.15/2.15

Cost of equity = (8.6%-3.26279%)/(1/2.15)

Cost of equity = 11.48%

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Variable manufacturing overhead incurred was $245,000. Fixed manufacturing overhead incurred was $373,000. Actual machine-hours
steposvetlana [31]

Before information shows is the correct and complete question.

The Lopez Company use a standard costing in its manufacturing plant for the auto part. The standard cost of particular auto part based on a denominator level of a 4.000 output unit per year. included 6 machine-hours of variable manufacturing overhead at $8 per hour and 6 machine-hours of fixed manufacturing overhead at $15 per hour.

Actual output produced was 4.400 units.

Variable manufacturing overhead incurred was $245.000.

Fixed manufacturing overhead incurred was $373.000.

Actual machine-hours were 28.400.

Prepare the analysis of all variable manufacturing overhead and fixed manufacturing overhead variances.

Additional diagram attached to this question is displayed in the first image below.

Answer:

Explanation:

By using a columnar method, the analysis of all the variance & fixed manufacturing overhead varaince can be computed as follows:

Variable manufacturing overhead analysis:

Actual cost Incurred: ║ Actual input ×  Budgeted ║ Allocated: Budgeted

Actual input × Actual     rate                                        Input for actual output

rate                                                                               × Budgeted rate

245000                         28400×$8.00 = 227200      (4400×6hrs×$8)

                                                                                      = 211,200

                17800 U                    16800  U

            Spending Variance      Efficiency Variance

                                      33800 U

                                Flexible Budget Variance

Hence;

The spending Variance = $17,800 U

Efficiency Variance  = $16,000 U

Flexible Budget Varaince = $33800 U

where;   F = Favourable  & U = Unfavourable

<u>For the fixed Manufacturing Overhead:</u>

Actual cost Incurred: ║ Flexible Budget Lump ║ Allocated: Budgeted

Actual input × Actual     sum regardless of the    Input for actual output

rate                                 output level                     × Budgeted rate

                                                                             

373000                        4000×6hrs×15 = 360000  (4400×6hrs×$15)

                                                                                      = 396000

13000 U                                   36000  F

Spending Variance/               Production-Volume

Flexible budgeted variance   Variance

                                                 23000 F

                                        Over allocated fixed

                                        Overhead

Hence;

The spending Variance = $13000 U

The production Volume Variance  = $36,000 F

Over allocated fixed overhead = $23000 F

where;   F = Favourable  & U = Unfavourable

NOTE: To have a better view of the above computation in a table format, refer to the second and the third diagram in the image below.

8 0
3 years ago
If prices in the bond market become more volatile, everything else held constant, the demand curve for bonds shifts ________ and
docker41 [41]

If prices in the bond market become more volatile, everything else held constant, the demand curve for bonds shifts left and interest rates rises.

Interest is the amount paid by the borrower or deposit-taking financial institution to the lender or depositor in excess of the repayment of the principal at a specified rate. It is different from a fee that a borrower can pay to a lender or a third party.

Interest is the price you pay to borrow money or the cost you charge to borrow money. Interest is usually given as an annual percentage of the loan amount. This percentage is called the interest rate on the loan. For example, if you deposit money in a savings account, your bank will pay you interest.

Learn more about interest here:brainly.com/question/2151013

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5 0
1 year ago
Sandy paid 30 dollars for a blouse. Cleaning cost after each wear is about $0.50. Sandy thinks she can wear the blouse 50 times
andrezito [222]

Answer:

twice

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes the term customer contact points? Group of answer choices
kumpel [21]

Answer:

d.a customer interacting with a franchise employee

Explanation:

Customer contact points are avenues through which a company interacts with its customers directly. The modes of interactions include phone calls, written communication, online interactions, or one-on-one customer support.

Many businesses recognize the importance of customer contact points. They invest heavily to ensure that the customer gets a wonderful experience at the contact points.

6 0
3 years ago
Bramble Corp. has $3960000 of 9% convertible bonds outstanding. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into 30 shares of $30 par value
natta225 [31]

Answer: Credit of $217480 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par

Explanation:

The following information is given in the question as:

Debit: Bonds payable = $1,250,000

Debit: Premium on bonds payable = $92480

Credit: Common stock = $1,125,000

Credit: Paid in capital in excess of Par = $217480

The above were calculated as:

Common stock = ($1250,000/$1,000) × 30 × 30

= $1250 × 90

= $1,125,000

% Conversion will be:

= $1,250,000 / $3960000 = 0.32

Unamortized bond premium will then be:

= 0.32 × $289,000

= $92,480

Paid in capital in excess of par will be:

= $1,250,000 + $92,480- $1,125,000

= $217,480

Therefore, the answer will be to

"Credit of $217480 to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par"

4 0
3 years ago
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