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GuDViN [60]
4 years ago
13

Starset, Inc., has a target debt-equity ratio of 1.15. Its WACC is 8.6 percent, and the tax rate is 21 percent.

Business
1 answer:
aev [14]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. 4.94%

b. 11.48%

Explanation:

Here in this question, we are interested in calculating the pretax cost of debt and cost of equity.

We proceed as follows;

a. From the question;

The debt equity ratio = 1.15

since Equity = 1 ; Then

Total debt + Total equity = 1 + 1.15 = 2.15

Mathematically ;

WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + Pretax Cost of debt x Weight of debt x (1-Tax rate)

Where WACC = 8.6%

Cost of equity = 14%

Weight of equity = 1/(total debt + total equity) = 1/(1+1.15) = 1/2.15

Pretax cost of debt = ?

Weight of debt = debt equity ratio/total cost of debt = 1.15/2.15

Tax rate = 21% = 0.21

Substituting these values, we have;

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

8.6% = 14% x 1/2.15 + Pretax cost of debt x 1.15/2.15 x (1-21%)

Pretax cost debt = (8.6%-6.511628%)/(1.15/2.15 x (1-21%))

Pretax cost of debt = 4.94%

b. WACC = Cost of equity x Weight of equity + After tax Cost of debt x Weight of debt

8.6% = Cost of equity x 1/2.15 + 6.1% x 1.15/2.15

Cost of equity = (8.6%-3.26279%)/(1/2.15)

Cost of equity = 11.48%

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Goshia [24]

Answer: $4.24

Explanation:

According to the Put-Call Parity, the value would be expressed by;

Put Price = Call price - Stock price + Exercise price *e^-(risk free rate *T)

T is 90 days out of 365 so = 90/365

= 2.65 - 26 + 28 * 2.71 ^ (-0.06 * 90/365)

= $4.24

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kart Inc., a publishing house, allows employees to log in at their preferred time and log off after completing eight hours. It d
Naddik [55]

Answer:

flexible time

Explanation:

Since their work time is not fixed, these employees have flexible work time. Often, this kind of working time is deemed to be a non-financial work benefit, as most people prefer to define their own work time. Sometimes, it is debated if this is really beneficial for the employees.

Nonetheless, they do have to respect their daily work time slot,

3 0
4 years ago
A company has $99,000 in outstanding accounts receivable and it uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts.
quester [9]

Answer:

Dr Bad debt expense 3,070

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 3,070

Explanation:

$99,000 in accounts receivables

4% is considered bad debt

$99,000 x 4% = $3,960

the current balance for allowance for doubtful accounts = $890 (credit)

the adjusting entry for allowance for doubtful accounts = $3,960 - $890 = $3,070

the journal entry should be:

Dr Bad debt expense 3,070

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the final balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts = $3,070 + $890 = $3,960

7 0
4 years ago
Selling price per unit = £0.63
ikadub [295]

Answer:

368 units

Explanation:

The Break-even point is calculated by dividing fixed cost by the contribution margin per unit.

Fixed cost = £140

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - variable cost per unit

Selling price = £0.63 : Variable cost :  £0.25

Contribution margin per units =£0.63 - £0.25

=£0.38

Break-even point = £140 / £0.38

=368.42

=368 units

5 0
3 years ago
(a) On July 1, Blue Spruce Co. sold merchandise on account to Waegelein Inc. for $17,300, terms 2/10, n/30. (b) On July 8, Waege
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

On July 1

Account receivable A/c Dr $17,300

         To Sales $17,300

(Being the goods are sold on credit)

On July 8

Sales return and allowance A/c Dr $4,000

          To Accounts receivable $4,000

(Being sales return is recorded)

On July 11

Cash  ($17,300 - $4,000) × 98%        $13,034

Sales discount  ($17,300 - $4,000) × 2% $266

       To Account receivable ($17,300 - $4,000) $13,300

(Being the cash received is recorded)

Only these three entries are recorded

5 0
3 years ago
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