One conclusion we can draw from this statement by Pope Gregory III is that C. Christians and non-Christians conducted business with each other in the eighth century.
<h3>How do we know that Christians and Pagans traded in the 8th century?</h3>
"Pagans" is a word used by Christians in the past for people who were non-Christians.
By saying that some Christians sell their enslaved to pagans, Pope Gregory III is proving that some sort of trade existed between the Pagans and Christians which at the very least included slave trade.
Find out more on Pope Gregory at brainly.com/question/4289542.
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I think the answer is <span>the gap in pay between men and women persists in most industries.
The early years did accept the women in the labor force but there was a difference between their salaries. Men tend to have higher salaries than women before,
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Answer:
what do u mean##++*2++3+£
The correct answer is the third one: approval by 9 of the 13 states.
However, all 13 out of 13 states approved the Constitution
The best explanation why the area between Spain and Gaul was not part of the Roman empire until that later period was a culmination from both undesireability and difficulty in accessing this region due to its mountaineous nature. So I would wager the answer being both C and D - undesireability and difficulty in access.
