All categories

3 years ago

I really need help with this one please

Mathematics

1 answer:

natka813 [3]3 years ago

6 0

The distance from the sun is option 2 5.59 astronomical units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1; To solve the question we need two variables. P which represents the number of years a planet takes to complete a revolution around the Sun. This is given as 13.2 years in the question so P = 13.2 years. The other variable is the distance between the planet and the sun in astronomical units. We need to determine the value of this using the given equation.

Step 2; So we have to calculate the value of 'a' in Kepler's equation. But the exponential power $\frac{3}{2}$ is on the variable we need to find so we multiply both the sides by an exponential power of $\frac{2}{3}$ to be able to calculate 'a'.

P = $a^{\frac{3}{2} }$ , $P^{\frac{2}{3} }$ = $a^{\frac{3}{2}*\frac{2}{3} }$ , $P^{\frac{2}{3} }$ = a, $13.2^{\frac{2}{3} }$ = a = 5.58533 astronomical units.

Rounding it over to nearest hundredth we get 5.59 astronomical units.

You might be interested in

Pls help if you actually can

Setler79 [48]

The triangles that are similar would be ΔGCB and ΔPEB due to Angle, Angle, Angle similarity theorem.

<h3>How to identify similar triangles?</h3>

From the image attached, we see that we are given the Parallelogram GRPC. Thus;

A. The triangles that are similar would be ΔGCB and ΔPEB due to Angle, Angle, Angle similarity theorem.

B. The proof of the fact that ΔGCB and ΔPEB are similar pairs of triangles is as follow;

∠CGB ≅ ∠PEB (Alternate Interior Angles)

∠BPE ≅ ∠BCG (Alternate Interior Angles)

∠GBC ≅ ∠EBP (Vertical Angles)

C. To find the distance from B to E and from P to E, we will first find PE and then BE by proportion;

225/325 = PE/375

PE = 260 ft

BE/425 = 225/325

BE = 294 ft

Read more about Similar Triangles at; brainly.com/question/14285697

#SPJ1

5 0

1 year ago

PLEASE HELP DUE TODAY!! GIVING BRAINLIEST, REPORTING BITLY ANSWERS

bulgar [2K]

Answer:

Minimum: 50

Lower Quartile: 59

Median: 66

Upper Quartile: 74

Maximum: 92

Step-by-step explanation:

50, 55, 58, 60, 62, 64, 68, 70, 72, 76, 84, 92

Minimum: 50

Lower Quartile: (58 + 60)/2 = 59

Median: (64 + 68)/2 = 66

Upper Quartile: (72 + 76)/2 = 74

Maximum: 92

5 0

2 years ago

128 is 74% of what number?

Hatshy [7]

74% means 0.74
"of" means "times"

So, 128 = 0.74 times (the number)

Divide each side of this equation by 0.74 :

128/0.74 = the number

172.973 (rounded) = the number

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume

mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

$P(W)=0.80$

Then the probability that the player losses is,

$P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20$

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = $P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = $1-P(L)-P(WL)$

$=1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let X = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable $X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)$

The probability distribution of binomial is:

$P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}$

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (X ≥ 1) = 1 - P (X < 1)

= 1 - P (X = 0)

$=1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942$

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0

3 years ago

Wich measurement is the closest to the area of the triangle in square centimeters???? :(

faltersainse [42]

Jfkkdkdjemaaj
Dndndjjfkf
Jfkkfjf
Jfkkf

3 0

2 years ago