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kirill115 [55]
3 years ago
5

Ready Company has two operating (production) departments: Assembly and Painting. Assembly has 280 employees and occupies 55,200

square feet; Painting has 120 employees and occupies 36,800 square feet. Indirect factory expenses for the current period are as follows: Administration $ 86,000 Maintenance $ 102,000 Administration is allocated based on workers in each department; maintenance is allocated based on square footage. The total amount of indirect factory expenses that should be allocated to the Painting Department for the current period is:
Business
1 answer:
Agata [3.3K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$61,200

Explanation:

Maintenance expenses allocated to assembly department

Allocation base = Square footage

= $102,000 * $55,200 / ($55,200 + $36,800)

= $102,000 * $55,200 / $92,000

= $61,200

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A machine purchased 1 year ago for $85,000 costs more to operate than anticipated. When purchased, the machine was expected to b
goblinko [34]

Answer:

Value of S=$25000.

Explanation:

Value of P= $75000

Value of n= 5 years

Value of AOC= $36000+ $1500k (k=1 to 5)

Since the salvage value would be after 5 years=

S=($75000- $10000*5) = $75000- $50000= $25000.

Value of S=$25000.

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a risky portfolio. The end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio will be either $40,000 or $135,000, with equal
pogonyaev

Answer:

a. $76,754

.38

b. 14%

c. $73,529

Explanation:

a. The computation of portfolio is given below:-

Risk Premium

= Required return - Risk free rate

= 10% + 4%

= 14%

Expected value of the payoff

= $40,000 × 1 ÷ 2 + $135,000 × 1 ÷ 2

= $87,500

Value of portfolio = $87,500 ÷ (1 + 14%)

= $76,754.39

b. The calculation of expected rate of return on the portfolio is shown below:-

= ($87,500 - $76,754.39) ÷ $76,754.39

= 14%

c. The calculation of risk premium is shown below:-

Risk premium = Required return - Risk free rate

Required return = 15%+4% = 19%

Expected rate of the payoff

= $40,000 × 1 ÷ 2 + $135,000 × 1 ÷ 2

=$87500

Value of portfolio

= $87,500 ÷ (1 + 19%)

= $73,529

4 0
3 years ago
In a dealer market, some dealers hold a certain inventory of specific securities and create a liquid market by purchasing and se
UNO [17]

Answer:

Dealers profit comes from the spread primarily. Spread is the differential amount between buying and selling.

Explanation:

Let us assume the price of security X is USD 100 (last trade price)

A dealer will purchase this security at discounted price from the investor say USD 99 and will sell the same security in the market at USD 100, thus earning spread.

Further being market markers, dealers often use multiple strategies to prop up the price of  particular security and earn gains on inventory held.

4 0
3 years ago
[The following information applies to the questions displayed below.]
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

Since the requirements are missing, I believe that you need the adjusting entries:

1. Depreciation on the equipment for the month of January is calculated using the straight-line method.

Dr Depreciation expense 375 ($18,000/4 x 1/12)

    Cr Accumulated depreciation, equipment 375

2. At the end of January, $3,500 of accounts receivable are past due, and the company estimates that 50% of these accounts will not be collected. Of the remaining accounts receivable, the company estimates that 2% will not be collected. The note receivable of $18,000 is considered fully collectible and therefore is not included in the estimate of uncollectible accounts.

Dr Bad debt expense 6,250

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 6,250

3. Accrued interest revenue on notes receivable for January.

Dr Interest receivable 75 ($18,000 x 5% x 1/12)

    Cr Interest revenue 75

4. Unpaid salaries at the end of January are $33,100.

Dr Salaries expense 33,100

    Cr Salaries payable 33,100

5. Accrued income taxes at the end of January are $9,500

Dr Income tax expense 9,500

    Cr Income tax payable 9,500

5 0
3 years ago
Henry Jones contributed equipment, inventory, and $57,300 cash to a partnership. The equipment had a book value of $27,800 and m
Oliga [24]

Answer:

A. $86,900

Explanation:

Henry’s capital account will be credited by the amount of $86,900. See computation below.

Cash $57,300

Equipment 34,100

Inventory 10,400

Note payable (14,900)

————

Total $86,900

*Both the equipment and the inventory will be recorded on partnership’s book at fair market value at the time of contribution.

*The partnership may absorb the obligation if it is associated with an asset contributed by partner. Thus, it will be deducted to his capital account as contribution to the partnership.

3 0
3 years ago
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