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Alex
3 years ago
7

You are the newly assigned project manager to a major IT upgrade project in your global company. How will you determine the risk

tolerances associated with your project
Business
1 answer:
kap26 [50]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I have to identify the risk factors in the project and then gauge the willingness of the company to take such risks.

Explanation:

Risk tolerance is the willingness of an organization or an individual to take certain risks. The risk tolerance level of a person or organization can be classified as either high or low. For a project manager who wants to determine the risk tolerances associated with his project, he has to first identify the risk factors, and then try to know the risk level and if indeed this level is acceptable within the organization's culture and standard.

The project manager would do well to plot a graph that would show the probability of a risky action happening or not. A risk tolerance line is now obtained from where the project manager can know if that risk is tolerable by organization standards. The extent of job security would also help in determining the amount of risk a manager can take. However, they are still expected to stay within the standards of the organization.

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Sales promotions that provide consumers an incentive to buy a product, such as a cents-off coupons or a discount, are widely use
Nady [450]

Answer:

it is challenging to track usage of the coupons

Explanation:

Coupons are defined as an instrument that is used to obtain a discount or rebate when making a purchase.

Stores usually give out coupons to customers as an incentive to by products.

However there will be challenge of tracking the coupons as well as the discount on each coupon.

Coupons are given at different discount rates at different times, so it is cumbersome to track a particular coupon out of the many issued when customer wants to redeem it

6 0
2 years ago
Fiona, a regional sales manager, works from her office in State U. Her region includes several states, as indicated in the sales
son4ous [18]

Answer:

Payroll factor State U:

  • commissions $50,000
  • fringe benefit package $15,000

Explanation:

State           Sales Generated Fiona’s         Time Spent There

U                        $3,000,000                             20%

V                        $4,000,000                             50%

X                        $8,000,000                             30%

Sales percentage generated in state U = $3,000,000 / $15,000,000 = 20%

so 20% of the $250,000 commissions should be assigned to state U = $50,000

Time spent in state U = 20% x $75,000 fringe benefits = $15,000 assigned to state U

8 0
3 years ago
"A mutual fund manager of a "high technology" fund feels that the market for this sector will remain flat in the next coming mon
qaws [65]

Answer:  C.  narrow-based calls

Explanation:

Narrow based calls would include calls from one industry. The mutual fund is an "High technology" firm which means that it is a narrow based fund for instance as it is interested only in one industry being the High Tech industry.

The manager should invest in Narrow based calls that focus on the sector if he anticipates that the market will remain flat for the sector. Narrow based Calls are more volatile because they are specific and with the volatility comes higher premiums to be charged.

Should he wish to make income against the portfolio, he should sell these knowing that the options will not be called as the market will remain flat.

5 0
3 years ago
The purpose of the ________ of performance appraisal is to keep managers from being excessively lenient and having a disproporti
Kitty [74]

Answer: forced distribution method

Explanation:

JUST DID IT

8 0
3 years ago
On May 1, 20X2, Bolt Corp. issued 11% bonds in the face amount of $1,000,000 that mature on May 1, 20X12. The bonds were issued
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

B) 60,100

Explanation:

Since months have passed between the bond issuance and October 31. The amortization of the premium received depends on the amount of interest recognized. When the effective interest method is used, interest expense is based on the yield rate and the beginning book value.

interest expense = ($1,000,000 + $62,000) x 10% x 6/12 = $53,100

interest payable = $1,000,000 x 11% x 6/12 = $55,000

the difference (bond premium) = $55,000 - $53,100 = $1,900

unamortized bond premium = $62,000 - $1,900 = $60,100

4 0
3 years ago
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