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Nataliya [291]
2 years ago
5

Assume that a speculator purchases a put option on British pounds (with a strike price of $1.50) for $.05 per unit. A pound opti

on represents 31,250 units. Assume that at the time of the purchase, the spot rate of the pound is $1.51 and continually rises to $1.62 by the expiration date. The highest net profit possible on the option for the speculator based on the information above is:a.$1,562 b. -$1,562 c. -$1,250 d. -$1,250 e. None of the above
Business
1 answer:
ratelena [41]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

b) -$1,562

Explanation:

The speculator has the chance for sale at 1.50 because the price rises instead of decrease, it is losing money.

The speculator does not use their right to sale at 1.50

It will simply lose the value on which purchase the put option

0.05$ per unit  x 31250 units  = 1562.5

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An insurance policy sells for ​$1200. Based on past​ data, an average of 1 in 100 policyholders will file a ​$10 comma 000 ​clai
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

Expected Value = $740

Expected profit = $22.2m

Explanation:

We can easily calculate the expected value and expected profit/loss in this situation by some minor working

Expected values = Expected Claim - per policy cost

Expected profit/loss = (Expected claim - per policy cost) x number of policies

As you can see per policy cost and no of policies are given in the question data we just need to find expected claim for calculation of expected profit or loss and expected value

Expected Claim = (1/100x$10,000)+(1/250x$40,000)+(1/400x$80,000)

Expected Claim = 100 + 160 + 200

Expected Claim = 460

Now we have a value of expected claim lets put it into Expected profit/loss formula and expected value formula

Expected value = 460-1200

Expected value = -740

-$740 is the value per policy

Expected profit/loss = (460 - $1200 per policy) x 30,000

Expected profit or loss = -22,200,000

Expected loss to the customer = -$22.2 m

Expected profit for the company = $22.2m

3 0
2 years ago
Valley Spa purchased $10,200 in plumbing components from Tubman Co. Valley Spa signed a 60-day, 14% promissory note for $10,200.
zavuch27 [327]

Answer:  Debit Accounts Receivable -Valley Spa  of $10,438 Credit interest revenue $238, Credit Notes receivable $10,200

Explanation:

Interest  Revenue =  Principal x Rate X time

$10,200 x 14% x 60/ 360 ( Using 360 days in a year)

$238

Journal to record dishonored note  for Tubman

Accounts titles and explanation           Debit         Credit

Accounts receivable                         $10, 438  

Interest revenue                                                                $238

Notes receivable                                                    $10,200

8 0
3 years ago
According to PCN analysis, which process region includes process steps in which one participant is acting on another participant
mamaluj [8]

Options:

A. Independent processing

B. Surrogate Interaction

C. Direct interaction

D. Resource processing

E. Process domain Interaction.

Answer:B. Surrogate Interaction

Explanation:

PCN(preassigned control number) PROGRAM is a program system designed to allow the Library of Congress to assign control numbers in advance of a publication to those titles which may be included to collections of materials in the Library. PCN number is only assigned to publishers in the United States of America.

Surrogate Interaction is a type of Interaction taking place in a PCN program where there are no direct interaction.

3 0
3 years ago
To create the proper style for an argumentative essay, a writer should
spayn [35]

Answer:

<em>Provide clear statements</em>

<em>The government can pay for projects to create work</em>

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Calistoga Produce estimates bad debt expense at 0.60% of credit sales. The company reported accounts receivable and allowance fo
liraira [26]

Answer: Calistoga's final balance in its allowance for uncollectible accounts at December 31, 2021 is $246.

Explanation: Calistoga Produce applies percentage of credit sales method to estimate its bad debt expense. So 0.60% of $331,000 (credit sales) = $1,986 and the balance in allowance for doubtful accounts is $1,520. The following journals would be recorded to adjust for the estimate:

Debit Bad debt expense                                      $466

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts           $466

The $466 is the difference between $1,986 and $1,520

Now that the company writes off $1,740 accounts receivable, the following journal entries apply:

Debit Allowance for doubtful account              $1,740

Credit Accounts receivable                                $1,740

In summary, the allowance account movement is as follows:

Opening balance                                                 $1,520

Additional bad debt expense                                 466

Write-off during the year                                     (1,740)

Balance, end of the year                                       $246

6 0
3 years ago
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