Answer:
D.
Explanation:
The word 'iterative' is derived from the Latin word 'iterare', which means 'to repeat.' 
Iterative is a term used to define a process of repetition to attain the desired outcome. It is a repetitive process performed to improve or do better than before. 
The statement that correctly defines the term 'iterative' is option D. The statement talks about working in cycles (repetition) to get a desired result of (refined product).
Therefore, option D is correct.
 
        
             
        
        
        
The answer in the space provided is 'coming from'. It is because the countries like China and India has government which has less over sight which enables them to transport goods from chemical manufacturers because of their government that are not that strict in terms of transporting goods to other countries compared to others countries that have more over sight and are more strict.
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
Revenue/Income; Expenses
Explanation:
Profit or Loss is determined as the difference between the revenue made by a business (also known as its income), and the expenses spent in the process of generating that revenue.

If the difference is positive, the outcome is a profit. If the difference is negative, the outcome is a loss.
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
B. a dealer buying newly-issued shares of stock from a corporation
Explanation:
Primary market transactions are IPOs or any other issuance of securities, e.g. bonds. A security is traded only once in a primary market, since after the security is issued for the first time, any other transection will be made on the secondary market. There is no physical difference between a primary or secondary market, e.g. the NYSE makes both primary and secondary transactions. 
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being  classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease  term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be  sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be  reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is  not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially  all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major  modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True