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Lesechka [4]
3 years ago
12

4×9×8^-1×3^-3/6^-1 .Ans is 1 but I want the method.​

Mathematics
2 answers:
lana66690 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Hi, Hope this will help :-)

podryga [215]3 years ago
5 0
  • Answer:

<em>1</em>

  • Step-by-step explanation:

<em>(4×9×8⁻¹×3⁻³)/6⁻¹ =</em>

<em>= (2²×3²×2⁻³×3⁻³)/2⁻¹×3⁻¹</em>

<em>= (2²×2⁻³×3²×3⁻³)/2⁻¹×3⁻¹</em>

<em>= 2⁻¹×3⁻¹/2⁻¹×3⁻¹</em>

<em>= 1</em>

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By themselves $18.20, $13.60, and together $31.80

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2 years ago
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3 years ago
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The variance of the probability distribution is given by

Var(x)=(x-\bar{x})^2p(x) \\  \\ =(0-0.56)^2(0.53)+(1-0.56)^2(0.40)+(2-0.56)^2(0.05)\\+(3-0.56)^2(0.02) \\  \\ =(-0.56)^2(0.53)+0.44^2(0.40)+1.44^2(0.05)+2.44^2(0.02) \\  \\ =0.3136(0.53)+0.1936(0.40)+2.0736(0.05)+5.9536(0.02) \\  \\ =0.166208+0.07744+0.10368+0.119072=0.4664

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