Answer:
1/2p+2
Step-by-step explanation:
1/2 distributed to p would be 1/2p. 1/2 distributed to 4 would be the same as 1/2 * 4/1. When you multiply straight across you get 4 in the numerator and 2 in the denominator (4/2). Next you just reduce the fraction, 4 divided by 2 is 2. So, the answer would be 1/2p+2. That answer would go into the 2 empty boxes. Hope thaat helps!!!
Answer:
c=27/40
in decimal form 0.675
Step-by-step explanation:
1/8+c=4/5
c=4/5
-1/8
c=27/40
Triangle AGB is congruent to Triangle CGB.
Answer:
a) The mean number of cases is 0.14608 cases.
b) The probability that the number of cases is exactly 0 or 1 is 0.990.
c) The probability of more than one case is 0.010
d) No, because the probability of more than one case is very small
Step-by-step explanation:
We can model this problem with a Poisson distribution, with parameter:

a) The mean amount of cases is equal to the parameter λ=0.14608.
b) The probability of having 0 or 1 cases is:

c) The probability of more than one case is:

d) The cluster of 4 cases can not be due to pure chance, as it is a very high proportion of cases according to the average rate. Just having more than one case has a probability of 1%.
0.83, 11.83, 0.3, 12.3, 0.3125, 8.27777778