Answer:
20.5%
Explanation:
Calculation for what Staley Co.'s margin of safety ratio (MOS%) if 600 units are sold would be
First step is to calculate Break-even amount
Break-even = $80,000/($480-$312)
Break-even= 476.19
Break-even= 477 approximately
Second step is to calculate the Margin of Safety
Margin of Safety = 600-477
Margin of Safety= 123
Now let calculate the margin of safety ratio
Margin of safety ratio=123/600
Margin of safety ratio=20.5%
Therefore Staley Co.'s margin of safety ratio (MOS%) if 600 units are sold would be 20.5%
Answer:
c. there are no barriers preventing new firms from entering the market in the long run.
Explanation:
In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.
This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.
In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.
However, the firms always strive to maximize profits by increasing their level of output, such that P = MC. Also, the firms wouldn't be willing to leave or enter into the market because they are not making any profit, such that P=AC.
In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.
Therefore, a typical firm in a perfectly competitive market earns zero economic in the long run because there are no barriers preventing new firms from entering the market in the long run.
Answer:
1. Suppose Quantity of Apple sold in year one & two = 100Kg.
Price in year 1 = $1.50 per kg
Price in year 2 = $3.00 per kg
Nominal GDP 1 = Price * Quantity = 1.50*100 = $150
Nominal GDP year 2 = 3*100 = $300
Change in Nominal GDP = $150
Percentage change in Nominal GDP = 100%
b. Real GDP of year 1 = Nominal GDP of year 1 = $150
Real GDP of year 2 = 1.50*100 = $150
Change in Real GDP = 0%
2. Quantity of Bread = 100 units price = $ 1 per unit, year 2 price = $ 2 per units
a. Nominal GDP year 1 = 1*100+1.5*100 = $250
Nominal GDP year 2 = 2*100+3*100 = $500
Percentage change in Nominal GDP = 500-250/500 * 100 = 100%
b. Real GDP year 1 = $250
Real GDP year 2 = 1*100 + 1.5*100 = $250
Percentage change in Real GDP = 0%
Answer:
$51,020.41
Explanation:
The net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.
PV = FV × (1 + r) ^ (-n)
PV = 25,000 (1 + 5%) ^ (-1) + 30000 (1 + 5%) ^ (-2)
= 51020.41
Where PV = present value
FV = Future value = 25,000 In year 1 and 30,000 In year 2
I = interest rate = 5%
N = time = 1 ,2
I hope my answer helps you