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Pepsi [2]
3 years ago
15

A biker travels 5 feet in 0.5 seconds. At this exact speed, how far will the biker travel in a minute?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pavel [41]3 years ago
3 0
A minute has 60 seconds, therefore we will deal with seconds now And since we have it that the biker travels 5 feet every 0.5 seconds, lets multiply that by 2 to get the traveled distance per second to make it easier 5*2=10 Finally, multiply 10 feet by 60 seconds(1 minute) = 600 feet
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3 years ago
Find all numbers whose absolute value is 3 . If there is more than one, separate them with commas. If there are no such numbers,
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

3, and -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Because absolute value is the distance away from zero, |3| and |-3| would both be 3 units away from 0. Be sure to have the negative on the inside if you're trying to make something positive, otherwise -|3| means that the absolute value of 3 would then become negative since the negative sign isn't a part of the absolute. hope this helps!

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A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
Circle X is shown in the diagram.
GaryK [48]

Answer:

m<1 = 1/2(a+b)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you have to add the two different side angles and then divide by two. I just took my quiz and got this.

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