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Natalka [10]
3 years ago
6

You select a card at random. Without replacing the card, you select a second card. Find the probability. P(M, then H)

Mathematics
2 answers:
Yuliya22 [10]3 years ago
8 0

The answer would be 2/121 because      P= 0/11 so that is cancelled out                           M= 2/11        H=1/11              

So you take M and multiply it times H and it gives you the answer .

Hope this helped !!

Tamiku [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The correct option is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

The alphabets written on cards are "MATHEMATICS".

We select first card after that we select second card without replacement.

We have to find the probability of (M, then H)

The total alphabets are 11.

The total number of card of M alphabet is 2. The total number of card of H alphabet is 1.

Probability is defined as

P=\frac{\text{Possible outcomes}}{\text{Total outcomes}

The probability of selecting card of M alphabet is,

P(M)=\frac{2}{11}

Now the total remaining card are 10, because the 1 card is drawn without replacement.

The probability of selecting card of H alphabet is,

P(H)=\frac{1}{10}

So, probability of (M, then H)

P(M\text{, then }H)=P(M)\times P(H)

P(M\text{, then }H)=\frac{2}{11}\times \frac{1}{10}

P(M\text{, then }H)=\frac{2}{110}

P(M\text{, then }H)=\frac{1}{55}

Therefore the probability of (M, then H) is \frac{1}{55}. Option C is correct.

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If you earn $400 a week, what is your hourly wage?
Nata [24]

Answer:

2.38 dollars in a week

Step-by-step explanation:

168 hours = Week

400 dollars = Week

400 ÷ 168  = 2.38

5 0
2 years ago
A book is 0.33 meters long. How many millimeters long is it?
Phoenix [80]

we know that

1\ meter=1,000\ millimeters

so

by proportion

Find how many millimeters are in 0.33 meters

\frac{1,000}{1} \frac{mm}{m} =\frac{x}{0.33} \frac{mm}{m} \\ \\x=1,000*0.33 \\ \\ x=330\ mm

therefore

<u>the answer is</u>

330\ mm

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
zalisa [80]

Answer:

The answe is 2/5m=4

Step-by-step explanation:

If he ate 4 of them, but it means he ate 2/5 muffins,

4 muffins = 2/5 muffins

You substitute x muffins for how much muffins she baked in all -

2/5 * x muffins = 4  or 2/5m = 4

Hope that helped :) <3

5 0
3 years ago
Find the area of the figure.
Gnoma [55]
15.5 x 12.4 = 192.2 so the answer is 192.2 square feet.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th
butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

     The variance = 999,000

     The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

             = 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean =   $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

              = $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

              = 1000

  Variance =   $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

                  = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

                           = 999,000

   The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

    $\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

        = $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000  times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

  = $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0
2 years ago
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