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swat32
3 years ago
10

As EBIT drops, the return on equity (ROE) of a levered firm drops ______ the ROE of an otherwise identical unlevered firm.

Business
1 answer:
Pepsi [2]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Relatively more than

Explanation:

As we know,  

The levered firm is that firm in which debt is involved whereas unlevered firm is that firm in which there is no debt involved.  

As if the EBIT drops, the return on equity drop is relatively more than the ROE of unlevered firms due to involvement and not involvement of debt. As it generated high risk and return which is gradual increases during a given period of time  

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Carol Byrd gets a student rate of $30.00 a month for health insurance. There is a $250 deductible. She recently received treatme
e-lub [12.9K]

The company's payment = $1640,

Carol's total cost = $410.

<u>Step-by-step </u>

<u>Given:</u>

Bill amount = $2300

Amount of deductible = $250

Remaining amount is given by:

                                           =$2300-$250

                                          =$2050

Since Carol's insurance company provided paid 80% of the bill less the deductible.

So, the Company's Payment is given by:

Company Pays 80% which translates to 0.8

       Company Payment   = 0.8*2050

       Company Payment  = $1640

Carol's total cost after the payment of company is given by

                      Carol pays  = $2050 - $1640

                      Carol pays = $410

Hence, the company's payment was $1640, Carol's total cost was $410.

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8 0
2 years ago
Stephen plans to purchase a car 5 years from now. The car will cost $43,011 at that time. Assume that Stephen can earn 7.11 perc
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

$30,174.74

Explanation:

The computation of present value is shown below:-

Future value = Present value × (1 + Rate of interest ÷ 1200)^12 × time period

$43,011 = Present value × (1 + 7.11 ÷ (12 × 100)^(12 × 5)

$43,011 = Present value × (1 + 7.11 ÷ 1,200)^60

$43,011 = Present value × (1 + 0.005925 )^60

Present value = $43,011 ÷ (1 + 0.005925 )^60

= $43,011 ÷ (1.005925 )^60

= $43,011 ÷ 1.425397857

= $30,174.73317

or

= $30,174.74

Therefore for computing the present value we simply applied the above formula.

We also attached the spreadsheet for better understanding

In compounded monthly, the interest rate is divided by 12 months and the time period is multiplied by 12 months and the same is to be considered

8 0
3 years ago
6. If negative float appears on a partial path (until certain activity), the most likely explanation is: a. One or more activiti
mixer [17]

Answer:

Negative Float on a Partial Path:

c. The project is meeting its expected completion date but a certain activity/ event on that path is not meeting its expected completion date.

Explanation:

Float is the quantification of delays in a project.  Negative float means that there is a delay exceeding the intended or allowed float by an ascertainable time.  This means that float is about the time when an activity takes longer than originally planned.  Some projects have inbuilt standard float which had been computed based on past experience of similar projects, with some allowances made for different expected scenarios.

4 0
3 years ago
An ______ is a business that is jointly owned and operated by two or more firms that pool their resources to penetrate host coun
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

International Joint Venture.

Explanation:

An international joint ventures are the partnership formed by two businesses based in two different country to explore international market without taking complete commercial risk as foreign company is not aware about the local condition and preferences. It help the company to expand its own territory and explore new market. Business is formed for only specified project and partners share it´s profit, loss and other asset for smooth process in the business.

3 0
4 years ago
During the second year of the equipment’s life, $21,900 cash is paid for a new component expected to increase the equipment’s pr
Alona [7]

Answer:

   S/N              ACCOUNT                                 DEBIT                  CREDIT

      1             Equipment                                   $22,000

                        Cash                                                                     $22,000  

                    Being payment for new component expected to increase the

                    equipment’s productivity by 10% a year

      2.           Equipment Repairs expenses      $6,250

                       Cash                                                                          $6,250

                    Being payment for equipment repair

     3.            Equipment                                       $14,870

                       Cash                                                                          $14,870

                    Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life

                    the asset

Explanation:

The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.

Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.

The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is  expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.

The  $6,250  paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.

The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.

7 0
3 years ago
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