Answer: 40 and 52
Step-by-step explanation:
, so both 40 and 52 have a factor of 4.
Answer:
one
Step-by-step explanation:
for general form : ax²+bx+c=0
delta = b²-4ac
so for this example delta is 8²-4×2×8 =0
we know if delta = 0 , we have just one real number solution
so the answer is 1
Answer:
The GMAT score corresponding to the 16th percentile is 473.
Step-by-step explanation:
Empirical Rule.
The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed random variable:
Approximately 68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
Approximately 95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviations of the mean.
Approximately 99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
68% of the measures within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
This means that they are between the 50 - (68/2) = 50 - 34 = 16th percentile(one standard deviation below the mean) and the 50 + (68/2) = 50 + 34 = 84th percentile(one standard deviation above the mean).
In this question:
Mean of 549, standard deviation of 76.
16th percentile:
One standard deviation below the mean, so 549 - 76 = 473.
The GMAT score corresponding to the 16th percentile is 473.

Since it's an isosceles triangle, it means there's two angles' measurements are the same.
Answer : The other possible angle measurements are 25 degrees and 77.5 degrees.
Hope this helps. - M