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vladimir2022 [97]
3 years ago
10

An asset having a four-year service life and a salvage value of $6,000 was acquired for $50,000 cash on April 5. Using straight-

line depreciation, what will be the depreciation expense at the end of the first year, December 31?
Business
1 answer:
Lana71 [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the depreciation expense at the end of the first year, December 31 is $ 8,250

Explanation:

Straight line Method of Depreciation Charges the same amount of depreciation over the useful life of the asset.

Depreciation Charge = (Cost - Salvage Value) / Useful Life

Depreciation Charge = ($50,000-$6,000) / 4 years

                                   = $11,000

<u>Apportionment of Depreciation Charge</u>

<em>From April 5 to December 13 there are 9 months</em>

Therefore depreciation for the year is apportioned as follows :

Depreciation Charge = 9/12× $11,000

                                   = $ 8,250

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Flynn Industries has three activity cost pools and two products. It estimates production 2,000 units of Product BC113 and 1,000
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Follows are the instructions to this question:

Explanation:

Given:

Configuration of machine = \$16,000 \ \ \ \ 40  \ \ \ \ 25 \ \ \ \ 15

Machine hours= \$110,000  \ \ \ \ 5,000  \ \ \ \ 1,000 \ \ \ \  4,000

Order on Packing= \$30,000\ \ \ \  500 \ \ \ \ 150 \ \ \ \ 350

We have to use the following formula in order to measure the expected production overhead rate:

Estimated overhead production rate= Total projected production expenses and for period/Total base allocation sum

Machine Configuration =\frac{16,000}{(40+25+15)}= \frac{16,000}{80} =\$200 / \ setup

Machining hour= =\frac{110,000}{(5,000 + 1,000 + 4,000)} =\frac{110,000}{(10,000)}= \$11 / \  machine \ hour

Packing= \frac{30,000}{(500 + 150 + 350)}= \frac{30,000}{1000}= \$30/ \ order

6 0
2 years ago
Dallas Products is a division of a major corporation. The following data are for the most recent year of operations: Sales $ 37,
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Given the above information, margin is computed as;

Margin = Net operating income / Sales

Sales = $37,880,000

Net operating income = $3,508,960

Then,

Margin = $3,508,960 / $37,880,000

Margin = 9.26%

Therefore, the division's margin used to compute ROI is closest to 9.26% approximately

7 0
3 years ago
When the seller requires that only certain dealers carry its products and also that these dealers not handle competitors' produc
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

exclusive dealing

Explanation:

Exclusive dealing -

It is the method , where a deal is set up between a specific supplier and the wholesaler or the retailer , where the no other distributor would be able to receive the supply , is referred to as exclusive dealing.

In this scenario no other dealer can not handle the product in any case.

Hence , from the scenario of the question,

The correct option is exclusive dealing .

3 0
3 years ago
The following costs were incurred in September:
aleksley [76]

Answer:

Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Direct materials = $44,200

Direct labor = $31,800

Manufacturing overhead = $25,200

Selling expenses = $22,100

Administrative expenses = $37,100

Conversion cost:

= Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead

= $31,800 +$25,200

= $57,000

Therefore, the conversion costs during the month totaled $57,000.

5 0
3 years ago
When we are doing the double entry for the closing inventory, why do we credit the inventory? I understand why we debit the clos
anastassius [24]

Answer:

Debiting in this case means to add to the inventory. Therefore, crediting means that inventory was used up when closing inventory.

Explanation:

A debit is an accounting entry that either increases an asset or expense account, or decreases a liability or equity account. ... A credit is an accounting entry that either increases a liability or equity account, or decreases an asset or expense account.

3 0
2 years ago
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