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AURORKA [14]
3 years ago
7

F(x) = x2+3x+2 x2+5x+4 Why is there no zero at x = –1?

Mathematics
1 answer:
dmitriy555 [2]3 years ago
7 0
You could rewrite F(x) as

\dfrac{x^2+3x+2}{x^2+5x+4}=\dfrac{(x+1)(x+2)}{(x+1)(x+4)}

and be tempted to cancel out the factors of x+1. But this cancellation is only valid when x\neq-1.

When x=-1, you end up with the indeterminate form \dfrac00, which is why -1 is not a zero.
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With the help of Chebyshev's theorem, the percentage of data between 5 to 45 is 89%.

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The minimum percentage of observations that are within a given range of standard deviations from the mean is calculated using Chebyshev's Theorem.

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