Are the functions f(x) and g(x) inverse of one another?

Mathematics

1 answer:

lozanna [386]4 years ago

8 0

<h2>Answer:</h2><h2></h2><h3>No!</h3><h2></h2><h2>Explanation:</h2><h2></h2>

The function $f(x)$ doesn't have inverse because it doesn't pass the horizontal line test. This test tells us that a function $f$ has an inverse function<em> if and only if</em> there is no any horizontal line that intersects the graph of $f$ at more than one point. As you can see, from the graph of f (the red one), if you draw an horizontal line that passes through $y=4$ then this line will touch the graph of f at three points, so the horizontal line test is not satisfied here. If you see the graph of g, this doesn't represent a function because there is at least one vertical line that touches the graph at more than one point, so this relation is not a function.

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4 years ago

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3 years ago

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Lady_Fox [76]

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3 years ago

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aniked [119]

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