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Annette [7]
3 years ago
11

Are the functions f(x) and g(x) inverse of one another?

Mathematics
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>Answer:</h2><h2></h2><h3>No!</h3><h2></h2><h2>Explanation:</h2><h2></h2>

The function f(x) doesn't have inverse because it doesn't pass the horizontal line test. This test tells us that a function f has an inverse function<em> if and only if</em> there is no any horizontal  line that intersects the graph of f at more than one point. As you can see, from the graph of f (the red one), if you draw an horizontal line that passes through y=4 then this line will touch the graph of f at three points, so the horizontal line test is not satisfied here. If you see the graph of g, this doesn't represent a function because there is at least one vertical line that touches the graph at more than one point, so this relation is not a function.

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Answer:

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Interval = \{x:x=1\}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Represent the number with x

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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