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4 years ago

4) This results when you flip the numerator and denominator of a fraction.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Semenov [28]4 years ago

3 0

Answer:

To divide one fraction by another one, flip numerator and denominator of the second one, and then multiply the two fractions. The flipped-over fraction is called the multiplicative inverse or reciprocal.

Step-by-step explanation:

I got this from google.

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What is the product of 33 and j

Softa [21]

Answer:

It would be 33j, Product means multiplication, so if you multiply 33 times j, you get 33j

3 0

3 years ago

Suppose we play the following game based on tosses of a fair coin. You pay me $10, and I agree to pay you $n 2 if heads comes up

Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

In the long run, ou expect to lose $4 per game

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose we play the following game based on tosses of a fair coin. You pay me $10, and I agree to pay you $n^2 if heads comes up first on the nth toss.

Assuming X be the toss on which the first head appears.

then the geometric distribution of X is:

X $\sim$ geom(p = 1/2)

the probability function P can be computed as:

$P (X = n) = p(1-p)^{n-1}$

where

n = 1,2,3 ...

If I agree to pay you $n^2 if heads comes up first on the nth toss.

this implies that , you need to be paid $\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n)$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = E(X^2)$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) =Var (X) + [E(X)]^2$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = \dfrac{1-p}{p^2}+(\dfrac{1}{p})^2$ ∵ X $\sim$ geom(p = 1/2)

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = \dfrac{1-p}{p^2}+\dfrac{1}{p^2}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = \dfrac{1-p+1}{p^2}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = \dfrac{2-p}{p^2}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) = \dfrac{2-\dfrac{1}{2}}{(\dfrac{1}{2})^2}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) =\dfrac{ \dfrac{4-1}{2} }{{\dfrac{1}{4}}}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) =\dfrac{ \dfrac{3}{2} }{{\dfrac{1}{4}}}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) =\dfrac{ 1.5}{{0.25}}$

$\sum \limits ^{n}_{i=1} n^2 P(X=n) =6$

Given that during the game play, You pay me $10 , the calculated expected loss = $10 - $6

= $4

∴

In the long run, you expect to lose $4 per game

3 0

3 years ago

I need help please ?!!!!!

allsm [11]

Answer:

-6x² - x + 35

The answer is The Last One

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope This Helps :)

Plz Mark Brainliest!!!

5 0

3 years ago

(−2)(−2)+4 is equal to

abruzzese [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[-2][-2]=-2 x-2=4

4+4=8

8 0

3 years ago

In the graph of an inequality, the area above a dashed line through the points (−6, 4) and (2, 4) is shaded. Which inequality do

Drupady [299]

Answer:A. y ≥ 2

Step-by-step explanation:

First the line is solid, a complete line not dotted so the inequality sign to use is : ≥ or ≤

The points have their y-coordinate vale as 2, (−5, 2) and (3, 2), this means the line crosses the y-axis at y=2 but because the shaded part is above this line, then the correct inequality will be :

y ≥ 2

7 0

3 years ago