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sukhopar [10]
3 years ago
13

Hello Brainly! I need help with this question!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Monica [59]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

it is the furth 4

Step-by-step explanation:

4×4=16

You might be interested in
Nonstandard dice can produce interesting distributions of outcomes. you have two balanced, six-sided dice. one is a standard die
Artyom0805 [142]
<span>1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12
   
One die can show the values 1-6, while the other die can only show 0 or 6. So the possible totals are 1 through 6 plus 0 and 1 through 6 plus 6. Written out, one-by-one, this gives: 1+0 = 1 2+0 = 2 3+0 = 3 4+0 = 4 5+0 = 5 6+0 = 6 1+6 = 7 2+6 = 8 3+6 = 9 4+6 = 10 5+6 = 11 6+6 = 12</span>
6 0
4 years ago
1. In which quadrant or on which axis do each of the points (-2,4) , (3,-1) ,(-1,0), (1,2) and (-3,-5) lie? Verify your answer b
pashok25 [27]

Point (-2 , 4) lies in the 2nd quadrant

Point (3 , -1) lies in the 4th quadrant

Point (-1 , 0) lies on the negative part of the x-axis

Point (1 , 2) lies in the 1st quadrant

Point (-3 , -5) lies in the 3rd quadrant

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us revise the signs of the coordinates in each quadrant

  • x and y coordinates are positive in the 1st quadrant
  • x-coordinate is negative and y-coordinate is positive in the 2nd quadrant
  • x and y coordinates are negative in the 3rd quadrant
  • x-coordinate is positive and y-coordinate is negative in the 4th quadrant
  • The general point on the positive part of x-axis is (x , 0), and on the negative part of x-axis is (-x , 0)
  • The general point on the positive part of y-axis is (0 , y), and on the negative part of y-axis is (0 , -y)

Now let us check the points

Point (-2 , 4) ⇒ red point

∵ x = -2 and y = 4

∵ x-coordinate is negative and y-coordinate is positive

∴ Point (-2 , 4) lies in the 2nd quadrant

Point (3 , -1) ⇒ blue point

∵ x = 3 and y = -1

∵ x-coordinate is positive and y-coordinate is negative

∴ Point (3 , -1) lies in the 4th quadrant

Point (-1 , 0) ⇒ green point

∵ x = -1 and y = 0

∵ x-coordinate is negative and y-coordinate is zero

∴ Point (-1 , 0) lies on the negative part of the x-axis

Point (1 , 2) ⇒ purple point

∵ x = 1 and y =2

∵ x and y coordinates are positive

∴ Point (1 , 2) lies in the 1st quadrant

Point (-3 , -5) ⇒ black point

∵ x = -3 and y = -5

∵ x and y coordinates are negative

∴ Point (-3 , -5) lies in the 3rd quadrant

<em>Look to the attached graph for more understand</em>

Learn more:

You can learn more about the four quadrant in brainly.com/question/9381523

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
Hi! I just need help with the last problem, number 12. I did all of the rest. Please reply ASAP, thank you!
Fed [463]

Answer:

rocky???

Step-by-step explanation:

5/2 3/8

3 0
3 years ago
NOWW GOOD REWARDS AND BRAINLEST ANSWER ANY AND GET THE GOODS
dybincka [34]

Answer:

2/30

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two females in the class that have an A, meaning there is only 2/30 people who have an A and are female.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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