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svlad2 [7]
2 years ago
6

A certain project has three activities on its critical path. Activity A’s normal completion time is five days. It can be crashed

to three days at a cost of $500. Activity B’s normal completion time is six days, and it can be crashed to four days at a cost of $50. Activity C’s normal completion time is eight days. It can be crashed to three days at a cost of $1,000. Which activity should the project manager crash first, by how many days, and how much will it cost?
Business
1 answer:
Snowcat [4.5K]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Acitivy B should be crashed first by 2 days and Activity B has a crash cost per days of $25, it will be crashed for a total of $50.

Explanation:

activity A =

normal time (NT) = 5 days

Normal cost (NC) = $0

crash time (CT) = 3 days

Crash cost (CC) = $500

crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[CT - NT] = $250/day

activity B:

normal time (NT) = 6 days

Normal cost (NC) = $0

crash time (CT) = 4 days

Crash cost (CC) = $50

crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[CT - NT] = $25/day

activity C:

normal time (NT) = 8 days

Normal cost (NC) = $0

crash time (CT) = 3 days

Crash cost (CC) = $1000

crash cost per day = [CC - NC]/[ CT- NT] = $200/day

The activity that takes the least cost to speed up is the first one to be crashed. from the computations, activity B takes the least cost to speed up, so the project manager should crash activity B first by 2 days.

Therefore, Acitivy B should be crashed first by 2 days and Activity B has a crash cost per days of $25, it will be crashed for a total of $50.

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What is the payback period for a project with an initial investment of $180,000 that provides an annual cash inflow of $40,000 f
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

It will take 5.2 years to cover the initial investment.

Explanation:

<u>The payback period is the time required to cover the initial investment.</u>

year 1= 40,000 - 180,000= -140,000

Year 2= 40,000 - 140,000= -100,000

Year 3= 40,000 - 100,000= -60,000

Year 4= 25,000 - 60,000= -35,000

Year 5= 25,000 - 35,000= -10,000

Year 6= 50,000 - 10,000= 40,000

<u>To be more accurate:</u>

(10,000/50,000)= 0.2

It will take 5.2 years to cover for the initial investment.

5 0
2 years ago
Flint Inc. issued $3,790,000 of 10%, 10-year convertible bonds on June 1, 2020, at 99 plus accrued interest. The bonds were date
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

A. Dr Interest Payable $63,167

Dr Interest expense $127,617

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $1,284

Cr Cash $189,500

B. Dr Bonds payable $1,421,250

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $13,008

Cr Common Stock $612,000

Cr Paid-in capital in excess of par- Common Stock $796,242

Explanation:

(a) Preparation of the entry to record the interest expense at October 1, 2020. Assume that accrued interest payable was credited when the bonds were issued.

Dr Interest Payable $63,167

[($3,790,000*.10)/2*(2/6)]

Dr Interest expense $127,617

[($3,790,000*.10)/2*(4/6) + $1,284]

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $1,284

($321*4)

Cr Cash $189,500

[ ( $3,790,000*.10)/2]

(To record interest expense at October 1, 2020.)

Calculation for the discount per month

First step is to calculate the remaining months

Months remaining= (10 years *12-2)

Months remaining=118 months

Second step is to calculate the Total discount

Total Discount= $3,790,000-($3,790,000*.99)

Total discount=$3,790,000-$3,752,100

Total discount=$37,900

Now let calculate the discount per month

Discount per month=($37,900/118)

Discount per month=$321

(b) Preparation of the entry to record the conversion on April 1, 2021

Dr Bonds payable $1,421,250

Cr Discount on Bonds payable $13,008

Cr Common Stock $612,000

(34,000*$18)

Cr Paid-in capital in excess of par- Common Stock $796,242

[$1,421,250-($13,008+$612,000)]

(To record conversion of bond into 34,000 shares.)

Calculation for Unamortized bond discount

Discount of the bonds $14,213

($37,900*(3/8))

Less Discount amortized ($1,205)

[($37,900/118)*10 years*(3/8)]

Unamortized bond discount $13,008

($14,213-$1,205)

8 0
3 years ago
A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks what to do to decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems. Which risk
MAVERICK [17]

Correct/Complete Question:

A client with newly diagnosed hypertension asks how to decrease the risk for related cardiovascular problems. What risk factor is modifiable by the client?

A. Impaired renal function

B. Dyslipidemia

C. Age

D. Family history

Answer:

B, Dyslipidemia

Explanation:

Dyslipidemia is a condition where there are an large amounts of lipids in the blood. Let's simply call these lipids fat albeit there are different types of lipids.

From the above option, Impaired renal function, age, family history are not modifiable as they are inherent. Only Dyslipidemia is not inherent as it is a function of an individual's lifestyle. To avoid fattening or large amounts of lipids in the blood, eating healthy and exercising can help to keep the amount of lipids in check thus ensuring that an individual doesn't have too much fat in the blood which is a trigger for hypertension.

Cheers.

3 0
2 years ago
If consumption expenditures are $500 million, net investment is $100 million, depreciation equals $5 million, imports are $50 mi
erik [133]
Your answer is........C) $830 million.
8 0
3 years ago
Measuring business activities and reporting those measurements to external parties is the function of ______ accounting.
Andru [333]

Answer:

Financial

Explanation:

Basically, there are two forms of accounting for measuring business activities namely; Financial accounting and Management accounting.

Financial accounting involves the measurement of the business activities over a period using a defined framework or standard such as US GAAP, IFRS, etc. This is usually presented in a form of statements called the financial statements and is used by internal and external stakeholders such as Government, creditors, shareholders etc.

Management account is usually prepared for management purposes and measures the company's actual activities against the budget or plan.

The right answer is financial accounting.

3 0
3 years ago
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