Answer: C. Infinite
Explanation: (To explain this answer, I'll use 1 = 1) When you get 1 = 1 after doing an equation, this mean the answer is "all real numbers", which is the same term as "infinite" because it will always be true. Therefore, 0 = 0 will always be a true statement.
-2(-53)×36-24-36 》3816-60=3756
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
#SPJ4
No, because then she would have to pay 21 dollars as a total and she only has 20.
Add adult plus Child,
5.75 + 11.25 = 17
add that to the book's price,
17+3.99= 2.99
it will exceed the budget by 99 cents.
Answer:
1/6, 2/3, 15/18
Step-by-step explanation:
get a common denominator
2/3 times 6
15/18 times 1
1/6 times 3
new fractions : 12/18, 15/18, 3/18
so it would be 3/18, 12/18, 15/18
then just revert it back to the original fraction and you have your answer
