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frosja888 [35]
3 years ago
11

N 2016, marvin, a cash basis taxpayer, took a $2,000 itemized deduction for state income taxes paid. this increased his itemized

deductions to a total that was $800 more than the standard deduction. in 2017, marvin received a $1,600 refund when he filed his 2016 state income tax return. mar
Business
1 answer:
notka56 [123]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

stop cheating

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Which economic system has the most government control
Hatshy [7]
The answer you are looking for is a planned economy

4 0
3 years ago
Determine the amount of money that must be invested now​ (time 0) at 10​% nominal​ interest, compounded​ monthly, to provide an
Veseljchak [2.6K]

Answer:

the amount of money that must be invested now is $21068.87

Explanation:

Given that:

Nominal interest = 10%

Annuity = 7000

n = 8 years

The Effective interest rate is calculated by using the formula:

Effective interest rate = ( 1 + \dfrac{r}{100 \times n})^n-1

Effective interest rate = ( 1 + \dfrac{10}{100 \times 8})^8-1

Effective interest rate = 0.1045

Effective interest rate = 10.45 %

Thus ; the the amount of money that must be invested now​  is the present value with the annuity of ​$7, 000 per year for 12 ​years, starting eight years from now.

PV = 7000(\dfrac{(1+ 0.1045)^{12}-1}{0.1045(1 + 0.1045)^{12}})( \dfrac{1}{(1+ 0.1045)^8})

PV = 7000 × 6.666056912 × 0.4515171371

PV = $21068.87

Thus; the amount of money that must be invested now is $21068.87

4 0
3 years ago
Heavy Metal Corporation is expected to generate the following free cash flows over the next five years.
mezya [45]

Answer:

Enterprise value of Heavy Metal= $1,080.766

Share price =  $18.945 per unit

Explanation:

<em>The value of a firm is the present value of the free cash flow discounted at the weighted average  cost of capital</em>

Year                                          PV

1        52.1 × 1.14^(-1)      = 45.70175439

2        68.6 × 1.14^(-2)  = 52.40073869

3          78.6 × 1.14^(-3) = 53.05276117

4         74.4×  1.14^(-4) = 44.05077264

5          81.1 ×  1.14^(-5) = 42.12079868

Year  and beyond

  81.1 × 1.04/(0.14-0.04) = 843.44

Total value =   45.70+ 52.40+53.052 + 44.050 +42.120+  843.44 = 1080.766826

Enterprise value of Heavy Metal= $1,080.766

Share price = Total value - Debt value / number of shares

=  (1,080.766  - 304 )/ 41 million units= $18.945 per unit

Share price =  $18.945 per unit

4 0
3 years ago
Instructions on how to creae and maintained planned maintenance system schedules using sked appendix
gogolik [260]
  • Cycle, quarterly, and weekly calendars are the several types of PMS schedules.
  • The Cycle PMS Schedule shows the Maintenance Requirements (MRs) that are anticipated to be completed over an extended period of time within the ship's maintenance life cycle.
  • The pound sign symbol ("#") denotes required related maintenance checks that must be conducted within the quarter.
  • The mark used to denote the end of an MR is the letter "X."
  • A circled "O" on a Sked requirement denotes a requirement that was either not completed at all or just partially completed after the relevant MRC.
  • Each 13-week column has black markings at the top to denote underway periods.
  • Rescheduled MRS is indicated by the O-with-arrow on the schedule mean.

What are the two scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance?

Fixed PMs and floating PMs are two different scheduling techniques for preventive maintenance. Tracking assets and determining when they require inspection, maintenance, calibration, or replacement can be done using either method.

What are the strategies of preventive maintenance scheduling?

These two PM scheduling techniques enable maintenance facilities to precisely identify maintenance triggers, properly maintain assets and effectively utilize maintenance resources. As a result, facilities experience less downtime and improve asset performance for longer.

Learn more about Preventive maintenance: brainly.com/question/14970029

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
On january 1, a company issued and sold a $460,000, 3%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $456,000. interest is pay
Bad White [126]

To find the carrying value of the bonds after the first interest payments, we need to do the calculations to find the interest ..

Calculation of Interest:-

Cash interest payment of $ 6,900 ( 1.5% x $ 460,000) at the end of each semiannual period during the bonds life of 10 years… ( 3% / 2 = 1.5%)

That is $ 6,900 is paid for every six months say from Jan 30th to June 30 and June 30 to Dec 31……

So, every year we will pay $ 13,800 ( $ 6,900 + $ 6,900 ) for 20 periods ( two payments are made for every year, so for 10 years , we need to make the interest payment for 20 periods…)

Now lets amortize a bond discount.. (Amortizing is nothing but paying back

Straight Line Method… This method allocates an equal portion of the total bond interest expense to each interest period .

We divide the total bond interest expense of $ 142,000 by 20

This gives the interest expense of $ 7,100 per period. ( $ 6,900 interest + $ 200 Discount)

Interest Computation

Amount repaid to bondholders

20 interest payments of $ 6,900 = $ 138,000

Par value at maturity =$ 460,000

_________

Total repaid to bondholders = $ 598,000

Less:- Amount borrowed from bondholders = $ 456,000

__________

Total bond interest expenses = $ 142,000

__________

The following table shows the decrease in Discount on bonds payable account and the increase in the bonds carrying value ( Straight line method)

This is the summarization of Discount bond Straight Line amortization..

Semiannual period –end Unammortized Discount Carrying Value

(0) 1 / 30 $ 4,000 $ 456,00

(1) 6 / 30 $ 3,800 $ 456,200

(4,000 -200) ( 456,00+200)

The carrying value of the bonds after the first interest payment is $ 456,200

8 0
3 years ago
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