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grin007 [14]
3 years ago
9

A 1.34 mole sample of LiCl dissolves in water, The volume of the final

Chemistry
1 answer:
Mamont248 [21]3 years ago
0 0

Answer:

1.56 \,\,mol/L

Explanation:

Molarity of the solution measures number of moles of a solute per litre of solution.

Molarity = volume of solution in litres/number of moles of solute dissolved in solution

Volume of solution in litres = 0.86 L

Also, 1.34 mole sample of LiCl dissolves in water

So,

Molarity of the Solution = \frac{1.34}{0.86}=1.56 \,\,mol/L

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If the atomic weight/atomic mass is 0 what does it mean?
Gwar [14]

Answer: Neutron matter is equivalent to a chemical element with atomic number 0, which is to say that it is equivalent to a species of atoms having no protons in their atomic nuclei. Neutron matter decays quickly into hydrogen. Neutron matter has no electronic structure on account of its total lack of electrons.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
A volume of 90.0 mLmL of aqueous potassium hydroxide (KOHKOH) was titrated against a standard solution of sulfuric acid (H2SO4H2
Alja [10]

Answer:

0.823 M was the molarity of the KOH solution.

Explanation:

H_2SO_4+KOH\rightarrow K_2SO_4+2H_2O (Neutralization reaction)

To calculate the concentration of base , we use the equation given by neutralization reaction:

n_1M_1V_1=n_2M_2V_2

where,

n_1,M_1\text{ and }V_1 are the n-factor, molarity and volume of acid which is H_2SO_4

n_2,M_2\text{ and }V_2 are the n-factor, molarity and volume of base which is KOH.

We are given:

n_1=2\\M_1=1.50 M\\V_1=24.7 mL\\n_2=1\\M_2=?\\V_2=90.0 mL

Putting values in above equation, we get:

2\times \1.50 M\times 24.7 mL=1\times M_2\times 90.0 mL

M_2=\frac{2\times 1.50M\times 24.7 mL}{1\times 90.0 mL}=0.823 M

0.823 M was the molarity of the KOH solution.

7 0
3 years ago
Examination of the first few successive ionization energies for a given element usually reveals a large jump between two ionizat
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Answer:

See Explanation

Explanation:

Ionization energy refers to the energy required to remove an electron from an atom. Metals have lower ionization energy than non metals since ionization energy increases across a period.

One thing that we must have in mind is that it takes much more energy to remove an electron from an inner filled shell than it takes to remove an electron from an outermost incompletely filled shell.

Now let us consider the case of magnesium which has two outermost electrons. Between IE2 and IE3 we have now moved to an inner filled shell(IE3 refers to removal of electrons from the inner second shell) and a lot of energy is required to remove an electron from this inner filled shell, hence the jump.

For aluminium having three outermost electrons, there is a jump between IE3 and IE4 because IE4 deals with electron removal from a second inner filled shell and a lot of energy is involved in the process hence the jump.

Hence a jump occurs each time electrons are removed from an inner filled shell.

7 0
3 years ago
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lord [1]

Answer:

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Explanation:

I am assuming that we have to balance this equation. On the left side, we have one Fe, 2 H, 2 Cl, and 1 S. On the right side, we have 1 Fe, 1 H, 1 Cl, and 1 S. Adding a 2 as a coefficient in front of the HCl on the right side will make 2 H and 2 Cl instead, balancing the overall equation.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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