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lidiya [134]
3 years ago
15

Dermody Snow Removal's cost formula for its vehicle operating cost is $2,990 per month plus $329 per snow-day. For the month of

December, the company planned for activity of 23 snow-days, but the actual level of activity was 21 snow-days. The actual vehicle operating cost for the month was $10,860. The spending variance for vehicle operating cost in December would be closest to:
Business
1 answer:
VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-$303 Unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of spending variance is shown below:-

Spending variance = Flexible budget - Actual cost

= (23 × $329 + $2,990) - $10,860

= $7,567 + $2,990 - $10,860

= $10,557 - $10,860

= -$303 Unfavorable

Therefore for computing the spending variance we simply subtracted the actual cost from flexible budget.

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According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, investors are primarily concerned with portfolio risk, not the risks of individual
Paha777 [63]

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

The purpose of creating a portfolio is to diversify investment and achieve risk reduction as famously conveyed by the proverb, "do not put all the eggs in a single basket".

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by William Sharpe and John Lintner. The model explains the relationship between expected return of an investor and the investment risk.

Return earned by a portfolio is the weighted average return of the individual stock returns.

CAPM helps calculate expected return of an investor by the following formula:

Return = R_{f} \ + B(R_{m}\ -\ R_{f}  )

wherein, R_{f} = Risk free rate of return yielded by treasury bonds

              B = Beta, which is a coefficient which conveys the degree of responsiveness of security return in relation to the market return.

             R_{m}= Return which can be earned on market portfolio

Thus, the relevant risk with respect to a portfolio refers to an individual stock's share of contribution to the portfolio risk.

6 0
3 years ago
Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a?
puteri [66]

Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a controllable variance. Therefore, the option B holds true.

<h3>What is the significance of controllable variance?</h3>

Controllable variance can be referred to or considered as a variance that computes the difference between the actual quantity and the budgeted quantity sold or consumed by a firm in an economy. It can never be deficit, and is always in surplus of the budgeted amounts.

Therefore, the option B holds true and states regarding the significance of controllable variance.

Learn more about controllable variance here:

brainly.com/question/13985361

#SPJ4

The question seems to be incomplete. It has been added below for better reference.

Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a:

a. quantity variance

b. controllable variance

c. volume variance

d. rate variance

8 0
1 year ago
Manufacturing overhead was estimated to be $562,800 for the year along with 20,100 direct labor hours. Actual manufacturing over
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

$604,800

Explanation:

Applied manufacturing overhead is the manufacturing overhead that has been applied to production in a period.

it is calculated with the formula "budgeted overhead rate * actual labor hr"

Budgeted manufacturing overhead = $562,800

Budgeted Direct labor hours = 20,100

Budgeted Overhead rate = 562800/20100 =$28/hr

Actual manufacturing overhead = $543,705

Actual direct labor hours = 21600

Amount of manufacturing overhead applied = predetermined overhead rate * actual hr =28*21600

=$604,800

7 0
3 years ago
Granny Gums has established a scholarship at the Martin College of Dentistry. She will make deposits into an endowment account t
OleMash [197]

Answer:

<u>Scholarship Amount would be $45.68</u>

Explanation:

Deposits into an endowment account that pays 12% per year

Year 0 Deposit $100

Year 1 Deposit $90

Year 2 Deposit $80

Year 3 Deposit $70

Year 4 Deposit $60

Year 5 Deposit $50

Year 6 Deposit $40  

First find the present worth of the gradient deposits.  

P = 100 + 90(P/A, 12%, 6) - 10(P/G, 12%, 6) = $380.69  

A = 380.69 (0.12)

A= $45.68

3 0
3 years ago
Elaine takes out a $100,000 mortgage on December 1, 1997. Elaine will repay the mortgage over 20 years with level monthly paymen
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

I prepared an amortization schedule using an excel spreadsheet. The original monthly payment was $836.44. After the 120th payment, the remaining principal balance was $68,940.64. Since she didn't pay anything for 1 year, the new principal balance will be $68,940.64 x (1 + 8%) = $74,455.89

I prepared another amortization schedule for the remaining 9 years, and the monthly payment is $969.32. She will pay off the loan in 108 months.

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8 0
3 years ago
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